Anatomy
3 questionsWhich of these best describes the renal angle?
Which bone has the maximum anatomical contribution to the floor of the orbit?
Risorius is a muscle of?
NEET-PG 2012 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 161: Which of these best describes the renal angle?
- A. The angle between the latissimus dorsi and the 12th rib
- B. The angle between the erector spinae and the iliac crest
- C. The angle between the 12th rib and the erector spinae (Correct Answer)
- D. The angle between the 12th rib and the rectus abdominis
Explanation: ***The angle between the 12th rib and the erector spinae*** - The **renal angle** (also known as the costovertebral angle) is the space formed by the junction of the **12th rib** and the **erector spinae muscles** laterally. - This anatomical landmark is clinically significant for assessing **kidney pain** or inflammation (e.g., in pyelonephritis) through percussion. *The angle between the latissimus dorsi and the 12th rib* - While the **latissimus dorsi** is a significant back muscle, it is not the primary anatomical landmark that defines the renal angle. - The renal angle specifically refers to the relationship between the rib cage and the deeper spinal muscles. *The angle between the erector spinae and the iliac crest* - This description refers to a region lower down on the back, closer to the **pelvis**, and not directly related to the position of the kidneys. - The **iliac crest** defines the upper border of the pelvis, far from the kidney's typical location relative to the 12th rib. *The angle between the 12th rib and the rectus abdominis* - The **rectus abdominis** muscle is located on the anterior (front) aspect of the abdomen, involved in trunk flexion. - This muscle is anatomically distinct and separate from the posterior flank region where the kidneys are located and where the renal angle is assessed.
Question 162: Which bone has the maximum anatomical contribution to the floor of the orbit?
- A. Maxillary (Correct Answer)
- B. Zygomatic
- C. Sphenoid
- D. Palatine
Explanation: ***Maxillary*** - The **maxilla** contributes the most significantly to the **orbital floor**, forming approximately **75%** of its surface area. - The orbital plate of the maxilla is a thin, triangular bone that also forms the roof of the **maxillary sinus**. *Zygomatic* - The **zygomatic bone** forms the **lateral wall** and the **lateral portion** of the **orbital floor**. - Its contribution to the overall floor is less extensive than that of the maxilla (approximately 20-25%). *Sphenoid* - The **sphenoid bone** does **NOT** contribute to the **orbital floor** at all. - It forms parts of the **posterior wall** and **lateral wall** (via greater and lesser wings) of the orbit, but has no anatomical contribution to the floor. *Palatine* - The **palatine bone** (via its orbital process) contributes a very small, **posterior-most part** of the **orbital floor**. - Its contribution is minimal (less than 5%) compared to the maxilla and zygomatic bone.
Question 163: Risorius is a muscle of?
- A. Mastication
- B. Deglutition
- C. Facial expression (Correct Answer)
- D. Eye movement
Explanation: Facial expression - The **risorius muscle** retracts the **corner of the mouth** laterally, contributing to smiling or grimacing. - It falls under the category of **mimetic muscles**, all of which are innervated by the **facial nerve (cranial nerve VII)**. *Mastication* - Muscles of mastication, such as the **masseter**, **temporalis**, and **pterygoids**, are primarily involved in **chewing** and moving the mandible. - These muscles are innervated by the **trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V)**, not the facial nerve. *Deglutition* - Deglutition refers to the process of **swallowing**, involving muscles of the **pharynx** and **larynx**. - Examples include the **palatoglossus**, **stylopharyngeus**, and **superior pharyngeal constrictor**. *Eye movement* - Muscles responsible for eye movement are the **extrinsic ocular muscles**, such as the **recti** and **oblique muscles** [1]. - These muscles are innervated by the **oculomotor (III)**, **trochlear (IV)**, and **abducens (VI)** cranial nerves. *Note: No provided references mention the risorius muscle, mimetic muscles, or muscles of mastication; citations are applied only to supported sub-topics.*
Biochemistry
3 questionsThe anticodon region is an important part of which type of RNA?
What cofactor is required for the proper functioning of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase?
Apoenzyme is ?
NEET-PG 2012 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 161: The anticodon region is an important part of which type of RNA?
- A. r-RNA
- B. m-RNA
- C. t-RNA (Correct Answer)
- D. hn-RNA
Explanation: **t-RNA** - The **anticodon region** is a critical component of **transfer RNA (tRNA)**, responsible for recognizing and binding to the complementary codon on mRNA during protein synthesis. - This interaction ensures that the correct **amino acid** is delivered to the growing polypeptide chain according to the genetic code. *r-RNA* - **Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)** is a structural and enzymatic component of **ribosomes**, which are the cellular machinery for protein synthesis. - While rRNA plays a crucial role in forming **peptide bonds** and facilitating translation, it does not possess an anticodon region. *m-RNA* - **Messenger RNA (mRNA)** carries the **genetic code** from DNA to the ribosomes in the form of codons, which specify the sequence of amino acids for protein synthesis. - mRNA molecules have codons, but they do not have an **anticodon region**; instead, they are read by the anticodons of tRNA. *hn-RNA* - **Heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA)** is a precursor to mRNA in eukaryotic cells, containing both exons and introns. - It undergoes extensive processing, including **splicing**, to become mature mRNA, but it does not have an **anticodon region**.
Question 162: What cofactor is required for the proper functioning of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase?
- A. NAD
- B. NADP (Correct Answer)
- C. FAD
- D. FMN
Explanation: ***NADP*** - **NADP+** (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate) acts as the **electron acceptor** in the **glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD)** reaction, becoming **NADPH**. - **NADPH** is crucial for maintaining the **redox balance** in cells, particularly in red blood cells, by reducing **oxidative stress**. *NAD* - **NAD+** (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide) is a primary cofactor for many **dehydrogenase reactions** in catabolic pathways like **glycolysis** and the **Krebs cycle**. - It primarily functions as an electron acceptor in pathways that generate **ATP**, distinct from the role of **NADPH** in reductive biosynthesis and antioxidant defense. *FAD* - **FAD** (flavin adenine dinucleotide) is a coenzyme derived from **riboflavin (vitamin B2)** that is involved in various redox reactions, often in the form of **flavoproteins**. - Enzymes like **succinate dehydrogenase** in the electron transport chain utilize **FAD** as an electron acceptor, which is not the case for G6PD. *FMN* - **FMN** (flavin mononucleotide) is another coenzyme derived from **riboflavin**, structurally similar to FAD but lacking the additional adenosine monophosphate. - It participates in electron transfer reactions, particularly within **complex I** of the **electron transport chain**, but is not a cofactor for G6PD.
Question 163: Apoenzyme is ?
- A. Protein moiety (Correct Answer)
- B. Organic cofactor
- C. Inactive enzyme component
- D. Non-protein component required for enzyme activity
Explanation: ***Protein moiety*** - An **apoenzyme** is the **protein component of an enzyme** that is catalytically inactive by itself. - It requires a **non-protein cofactor** (either an inorganic ion or an organic molecule) to become active. *Organic cofactor* - An **organic cofactor** is also known as a **coenzyme**, which binds to the apoenzyme to form a functional holoenzyme. - While essential for enzyme activity, the apoenzyme itself is the protein part, not the organic cofactor. *Inactive enzyme component* - While an apoenzyme is **inactive on its own**, this description is too broad and doesn't specify its chemical nature. - It is specifically the **protein component** that is inactive until bound to its cofactor. *Non-protein component required for enzyme activity* - This describes a **cofactor** (either inorganic or organic), not the apoenzyme itself. - The apoenzyme is the **protein portion**, which *requires* the non-protein component for activity.
Physiology
4 questionsIn bladder injury, pain is referred to which of the following areas?
Which of the following statements is true regarding the function of the spinocerebellar tract?
What happens to the concentration of inulin as fluid passes through the Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT)?
Gastric secretions are essential for absorption of -
NEET-PG 2012 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 161: In bladder injury, pain is referred to which of the following areas?
- A. Flank
- B. Upper part of thigh
- C. Lower abdominal wall (Correct Answer)
- D. Penis
Explanation: ***Correct Option: Lower abdominal wall*** - **Referred pain** from the bladder is typically felt in the **suprapubic region** of the lower abdominal wall due to shared visceral and somatic afferent innervation. - The **parietal peritoneum** overlying the bladder is innervated by somatic nerves that also supply the abdominal wall. - This convergence of visceral afferents from the bladder and somatic afferents from the abdominal wall at the spinal cord level (particularly S2-S4) results in referred pain to the suprapubic area. *Incorrect Option: Upper part of thigh* - Pain in the upper thigh is more commonly associated with conditions affecting the **hip joint**, **femoral nerve**, or **inguinal region**. - Bladder innervation does not primarily refer pain to the upper thigh. *Incorrect Option: Flank* - Flank pain is typically associated with conditions of the **kidneys** or **ureters**, such as **nephrolithiasis** or **pyelonephritis**. - The bladder's referred pain pattern does not usually extend to the flank. *Incorrect Option: Penis* - While bladder irritation can sometimes cause sensations in the penis, it is more often associated with conditions like **urethritis**, **cystitis**, or **prostatitis**. - Direct referred pain from bladder injury to the penis is less common than to the lower abdominal wall.
Question 162: Which of the following statements is true regarding the function of the spinocerebellar tract?
- A. Smoothens and coordinates movements (Correct Answer)
- B. Involved in planning and programming motor activities
- C. Involved in maintaining equilibrium
- D. Facilitates learning through vestibulo-ocular reflex changes
Explanation: ***Smoothens and coordinates movements*** - The spinocerebellar tract provides the cerebellum with **unconscious proprioceptive information** from muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs. - This information allows the cerebellum to compare intended movements with actual movements, thereby **smoothing and coordinating voluntary motor activity**. *Involved in planning and programming motor activities* - This function is primarily attributed to the **cerebral cortex** (e.g., premotor and supplementary motor areas) and the **basal ganglia**. - While the cerebellum is involved in motor learning and fine-tuning, the initial **planning and programming** of complex movements are cortical functions. *Involved in maintaining equilibrium* - Maintaining equilibrium and balance is primarily a function of the **vestibulocerebellum** (flocculonodular lobe), which receives input from the vestibular system. - While the spinocerebellum indirectly influences balance by coordinating limb movements, its direct role is less pronounced than that of the vestibulocerebellum. *Facilitates learning through vestibulo-ocular reflex changes* - This function is specific to the **vestibulocerebellum** and is crucial for adapting the vestibulo-ocular reflex (VOR) to maintain visual stability during head movements. - The spinocerebellar tract's primary role is proprioception for limb coordination, not VOR adaptation.
Question 163: What happens to the concentration of inulin as fluid passes through the Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT)?
- A. Concentration of inulin increases (Correct Answer)
- B. Concentration of urea remains constant
- C. Concentration of HCO3- increases
- D. Concentration of Na+ decreases
Explanation: ***Concentration of inulin increases*** - Inulin is **freely filtered** at the glomerulus and is neither reabsorbed nor secreted along the renal tubule, making it an excellent marker for **glomerular filtration rate (GFR)**. - As water is reabsorbed from the PCT, the volume of tubular fluid decreases, causing the concentration of **unreabsorbed solutes**, like inulin, to increase. *Concentration of urea remains constant* - Urea is **reabsorbed** along the tubule, though passively; its concentration typically **increases** initially in the PCT due to water reabsorption, but then decreases as some is reabsorbed. - The statement is incorrect because urea concentration changes significantly throughout the nephron, particularly increasing as water is reabsorbed and then decreasing with some reabsorption. *Concentration of HCO3- increases* - The majority (approximately 80-90%) of **bicarbonate (HCO3-)** is reabsorbed in the PCT, primarily through its conversion to CO2 within the tubular lumen and then back to HCO3- intracellularly. - Therefore, the concentration of HCO3- in the tubular fluid actually **decreases** significantly as fluid passes through the PCT. *Concentration of Na+ decreases* - **Sodium (Na+)** is actively reabsorbed along the entire nephron, with about 65-70% reabsorbed in the PCT. - While Na+ is reabsorbed, water follows passively, so its concentration in the tubular fluid remains relatively **iso-osmotic** with plasma, meaning its concentration does not significantly decrease as fluid passes through the PCT, remaining fairly constant.
Question 164: Gastric secretions are essential for absorption of -
- A. Cobalamin (Correct Answer)
- B. Fat
- C. Thiamine
- D. Folic acid
Explanation: ***Cobalamin*** - **Intrinsic factor**, secreted by gastric parietal cells, is crucial for the absorption of **vitamin B12 (cobalamin)** in the terminal ileum [1]. - Without sufficient intrinsic factor, **pernicious anemia** can develop due to impaired B12 absorption [2]. *Fat* - Fat digestion primarily occurs in the **small intestine** with the help of **bile salts** and **pancreatic lipases**. - While gastric lipase begins some fat digestion, it's not essential for overall fat absorption. *Thiamine* - **Thiamine (vitamin B1)** is absorbed in the jejunum and ileum, primarily via **active transport** and passive diffusion. - Gastric secretions do not play a direct, essential role in its absorption. *Folic acid* - **Folic acid** is absorbed in the **duodenum and jejunum** as monoglutamates after being deconjugated from polyglutamate forms. - This process is not directly dependent on gastric secretions [2].