Obstetrics and Gynecology
5 questionsWhat is the most common site for ectopic pregnancies?
At which stage of cervical cancer is hydronephrosis typically observed?
What is the stage of endometrial carcinoma when it involves the cervix?
Which of the following pelvic measurements is most commonly used in clinical practice?
Which virus has the highest chance of transmission to the newborn during delivery?
NEET-PG 2012 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1101: What is the most common site for ectopic pregnancies?
- A. Isthmus
- B. Ampulla (Correct Answer)
- C. Fimbriae
- D. Interstitial/Cornual
Explanation: ***Ampulla*** - The **ampulla** of the fallopian tube is the most common site for ectopic pregnancies, accounting for about **70-80% of all cases**. - Its **wider lumen** and **tortuous path** can delay the ovum's transit, increasing the likelihood of implantation there. *Isthmus* - The **isthmus** is the second most common site for ectopic pregnancies, accounting for about **12% of cases**. - Pregnancies in this narrow, muscular part of the tube are more prone to **early rupture** due to limited distensibility. *Fimbriae* - **Fimbrial** ectopic pregnancies are rare, accounting for approximately **5% of cases**. - These occur when the fertilized egg implants on the **finger-like projections** at the end of the fallopian tube. *Interstitial/Cornual* - **Interstitial** or **cornual** pregnancies are uncommon but serious, making up about **2-4% of ectopic pregnancies**. - They occur in the portion of the fallopian tube that passes through the **muscular wall of the uterus** and carry a higher risk of hemorrhage due to rich vascularity.
Question 1102: At which stage of cervical cancer is hydronephrosis typically observed?
- A. Stage 2A
- B. Stage 2B
- C. Stage 3A
- D. Stage 3B (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Stage 3B*** - **Hydronephrosis** in cervical cancer is typically a sign of advanced disease where the tumor has spread to the **pelvic side wall**, compressing the **ureters**. - According to the **FIGO staging system**, involvement of the **pelvic side wall** and/or causing **hydronephrosis** indicates **Stage IIIB** disease. *Stage 2A* - This stage involves invasion beyond the uterus but **without involvement of the lower third of the vagina or parametrium**. - **Hydronephrosis** would not be expected at this earlier stage as it typically signifies more extensive tumor bulk or spread. *Stage 2B* - This stage indicates involvement of the **parametrium** but **without extension to the pelvic side wall**. - While the tumor is more advanced than Stage 2A, it is not yet associated with the direct **ureteral compression** that leads to **hydronephrosis**. *Stage 3A* - This stage involves the **lower third of the vagina** but **not the pelvic side wall**. - Although the tumor has spread to the vagina, the specific characteristic of **hydronephrosis** due to **ureteral obstruction** by the tumor reaching the pelvic side wall differentiating Stage 3A from Stage 3B is not present.
Question 1103: What is the stage of endometrial carcinoma when it involves the cervix?
- A. Stage 1: Cancer confined to the uterus.
- B. Stage 3: Cancer has spread beyond the uterus but not beyond the pelvis.
- C. Stage 2: Cancer has spread to the cervix. (Correct Answer)
- D. Stage 4: Cancer has spread to distant sites.
Explanation: ***Stage 2: Cancer has spread to the cervix*** - According to the **FIGO 2009 staging system** for endometrial carcinoma (applicable at the time of this exam), involvement of the cervix with **stromal invasion** without extending beyond the uterus into the parametrium is classified as **Stage II**. - This stage indicates that the cancer remains within the confines of the uterus but has spread from the uterine corpus to the **cervical stroma**. - **Note:** FIGO staging was updated in 2023, but this question reflects the 2009 criteria used at the time. *Stage 1: Cancer confined to the uterus* - This stage indicates that the cancer is **limited to the uterine corpus (body of the uterus)**, with no spread to the cervix or beyond. - Stage 1 is further subdivided based on the **depth of myometrial invasion**, but the cervix is not involved at this stage. *Stage 3: Cancer has spread beyond the uterus but not beyond the pelvis* - Stage 3 involves spread **beyond the uterus but is still confined to the pelvis**, including parametrial involvement, vaginal or serosal invasion, or pelvic/paraaortic lymph node involvement. - This stage represents more extensive local or regional spread than simply cervical involvement. *Stage 4: Cancer has spread to distant sites* - This is the most advanced stage, indicating that the cancer has spread to **distant organs** (e.g., lungs, bone) or involves the **bladder or bowel mucosa**. - Stage 4 represents a systemic disease rather than localized pelvic spread.
Question 1104: Which of the following pelvic measurements is most commonly used in clinical practice?
- A. Diagonal conjugate (Correct Answer)
- B. Transverse diameter of outlet
- C. Oblique diameter of pelvis
- D. Anteroposterior diameter of inlet
Explanation: ***Diagonal conjugate*** - This measurement is the most commonly used in clinical practice due to its **accessibility** and ability to estimate the **obstetrical conjugate**, which indicates the true AP diameter of the pelvic inlet. - It is measured vaginally from the **lower border of the symphysis pubis** to the **sacral promontory**. *Anteroposterior diameter of inlet* - This measurement, also known as the **obstetrical conjugate**, truly represents the narrowest AP diameter for fetal passage through the inlet. - However, it cannot be measured directly clinically and must be estimated from the diagonal conjugate or imaging. *Transverse diameter of outlet* - This measurement is important for assessing the **midpelvis** and **pelvic outlet**, but it is less commonly the primary measurement used for initial pelvic assessment compared to the diagonal conjugate. - A compromised transverse diameter can indicate a generally contracted pelvis or **android/anthropoid pelvic shapes**, which may lead to obstructed labor. *Oblique diameter of pelvis* - The oblique diameter provides information about the **symmetry of the pelvis**, but it is not routinely measured clinically unless there is suspicion of pelvic asymmetry or disease. - Significant asymmetry, often due to injury or disease (e.g., **scoliosis**, polio), can complicate labor by misdirecting the fetal head.
Question 1105: Which virus has the highest chance of transmission to the newborn during delivery?
- A. HSV (Correct Answer)
- B. CMV
- C. VZV
- D. Rubella
Explanation: ***HSV*** - **Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)** has the **highest transmission rate during vaginal delivery** if the mother has active genital lesions, with transmission rates of **30-50% for recurrent infection** and up to **85-90% for primary infection**. - Neonatal herpes can lead to severe disseminated disease, central nervous system involvement, or mucocutaneous lesions with high morbidity and mortality. - **Cesarean section is indicated** if active lesions are present at the time of labor to prevent transmission. *CMV* - **Cytomegalovirus (CMV)** is primarily transmitted **congenitally (in utero)** rather than during delivery. - While perinatal transmission can occur through cervical secretions or blood during delivery, the rate is **much lower** than HSV and most postnatal transmission occurs through **breastfeeding**. - Intrapartum transmission, when it occurs, generally causes less severe disease compared to congenital infection. *VZV* - **Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV)** transmission to the newborn occurs primarily when maternal infection develops **within 5 days before to 2 days after delivery**. - This can cause severe neonatal varicella, but the **overall intrapartum transmission rate is lower** than HSV. - Most severe fetal effects occur with **congenital varicella syndrome** (first or second trimester infection). *Rubella* - **Rubella** is almost exclusively transmitted **congenitally during early pregnancy**, leading to **congenital rubella syndrome**. - There is **no significant transmission during delivery** itself. - The critical period for fetal damage is during the first trimester, not at the time of birth.
Orthopaedics
4 questionsIn elbow, osteochondritis usually involves
What is a common complication of joint tuberculosis?
In the context of bone metastasis, which of the following bones is least likely to be a site of metastasis?
What is the primary use of a knuckle bender splint?
NEET-PG 2012 - Orthopaedics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1101: In elbow, osteochondritis usually involves
- A. Olecranon
- B. Trochlea
- C. Radial head
- D. Capitulum (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Capitulum*** - The **capitulum** of the humerus is the most common site for **osteochondritis dissecans (OCD)** in the elbow, especially in throwing athletes and gymnasts. - This condition involves an avascular necrosis of the subchondral bone leading to a detachment of a cartilage fragment. *Olecranon* - The **olecranon** is part of the ulna and is more commonly affected by **stress fractures** or **bursitis**, not typically osteochondritis. - While it articulates with the trochlea, it does not bear the primary compressive forces that lead to osteochondritis in the same way the capitulum does. *Trochlea* - The **trochlea** of the humerus articulates with the trochlear notch of the ulna and is less frequently involved in primary osteochondritis compared to the capitulum. - Pathologies here are more likely related to **instability** or **fractures**. *Radial head* - The **radial head** articulates with the capitulum and is more prone to **fractures** or degenerative changes like **osteoarthritis**. - While it can be affected by **osteochondral lesions**, the capitulum is the classic site for elbow osteochondritis dissecans.
Question 1102: What is a common complication of joint tuberculosis?
- A. Fibrous ankylosis (Correct Answer)
- B. Bony ankylosis
- C. Normal healing
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Fibrous ankylosis*** - Joint tuberculosis commonly leads to **fibrous ankylosis** due to chronic inflammation and destruction of articular cartilage, promoting the formation of fibrous tissue that limits joint movement. - This complication results from the body's attempt to heal the persistent inflammatory process, creating a stiff and immoveable joint. *Bony ankylosis* - While possible in severe, long-standing cases, **bony ankylosis** (fusion of bones) is less common in joint tuberculosis than fibrous ankylosis. - It typically occurs in diseases like **ankylosing spondylitis** or advanced rheumatoid arthritis, where new bone formation bridges joint spaces. *Normal healing* - **Normal healing** with full restoration of joint function is rare in untreated or late-diagnosed joint tuberculosis due to the destructive nature of the infection. - The disease often causes significant damage to cartilage and bone, precluding complete recovery without sequelae. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **fibrous ankylosis** is a well-recognized and frequent complication of joint tuberculosis. - The chronic inflammatory response and tissue destruction inherent to the disease make complications highly probable.
Question 1103: In the context of bone metastasis, which of the following bones is least likely to be a site of metastasis?
- A. Femur
- B. Humerus
- C. Fibula (Correct Answer)
- D. Spine
Explanation: ***Fibula*** - The **fibula** is not commonly involved in **metastatic disease**, primarily due to its low blood supply compared to other bones. - While it can occasionally show metastatic lesions, it's **rare** when compared to more commonly affected sites. *Humerus* - The **humerus** can be affected by metastasis, often from lung or breast cancers [1], as it is one of the long bones involved in **hematogenous spread**. - Common presentations include **lytic or blastic lesions**, which indicate bone damage from metastatic processes. *Femur* - The **femur** is frequently involved in metastatic lesions, particularly in patients with malignancies like **prostate or breast cancer** [1]. - Symptoms may include **pain** and **pathologic fractures** due to the weakening of the bone structure from metastasis [1]. *Spine* - The **spine** is a common site for metastases, especially from cancers such as **lung, breast, and prostate** [1]. - Bone scans often reveal **vertebral body lesions**, leading to complications like **spinal cord compression** [1]. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Osteoarticular And Connective Tissue Disease, pp. 674-675.
Question 1104: What is the primary use of a knuckle bender splint?
- A. Ulnar nerve palsy (Correct Answer)
- B. Radial nerve palsy
- C. Median nerve palsy
- D. Axillary nerve palsy
Explanation: ***Ulnar nerve palsy*** - A knuckle bender splint is primarily used to counteract the characteristic **claw hand deformity** seen in ulnar nerve palsy [1] by maintaining the **metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints** in flexion. - This splint helps improve function by preventing hyperextension of the MCP joints, which commonly occurs due to the unopposed action of the extensor muscles when the ulnar nerve is compromised. *Radial nerve palsy* - Radial nerve palsy typically results in **wrist drop** and an inability to extend the wrist and fingers, which is managed with wrist extension splints, not knuckle benders. - The primary goal of splinting in radial nerve palsy is to support the wrist in extension to facilitate grasping and carrying objects. *Median nerve palsy* - Median nerve palsy causes problems with thumb opposition and sensation in the first three and a half digits, often leading to an **ape hand deformity**. - Splints for median nerve palsy focus on maintaining the thumb in opposition, such as a **thumb spica splint**, which differs from a knuckle bender. *Axillary nerve palsy* - Axillary nerve palsy primarily affects the **deltoid muscle**, leading to weakness in shoulder abduction and external rotation. - Splinting for axillary nerve palsy typically involves shoulder immobilizers or abduction splints, which address shoulder joint positioning rather than hand function.
Radiology
1 questionsWhich of the following conditions can cause periosteal reactions?
NEET-PG 2012 - Radiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1101: Which of the following conditions can cause periosteal reactions?
- A. All of the options (Correct Answer)
- B. Osteomyelitis
- C. Syphilis
- D. Tumor
Explanation: ***All of the options*** - **Periosteal reactions** are non-specific findings that indicate periosteal irritation or inflammation, which can be caused by a wide range of pathologies including infection, neoplasia, and trauma. - This option correctly encompasses the various causes listed in the other choices, making it the most accurate answer. *Osteomyelitis* - **Osteomyelitis**, an infection of the bone, can cause inflammation of the surrounding periosteum, leading to periosteal new bone formation. - The type of periosteal reaction can vary, from **lamellated** to **solid**, depending on the chronicity and aggressiveness of the infection. *Syphilis* - **Congenital syphilis** and tertiary acquired syphilis can lead to significant bone involvement, including **periostitis**, which manifests as periosteal reactions. - The classic appearance in children with congenital syphilis is a **wavy** or **irregular cortical thickening** due to widespread periostitis. *Tumor* - Both **primary bone tumors** (e.g., osteosarcoma, Ewing's sarcoma) and **metastatic lesions** can elicit a periosteal response as they invade or irritate the periosteum. - The periosteal reaction in tumors can present as aggressive patterns like a **sunburst** or **Codman's triangle**, indicating rapid bone destruction and new bone formation.