Dental
1 questionsEpulis arises from -
NEET-PG 2012 - Dental NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1081: Epulis arises from -
- A. Enamel
- B. Root of teeth
- C. Gingiva (Correct Answer)
- D. Pulp
Explanation: ***Gingiva*** - **Epulis** refers to a localized, tumor-like enlargement of the **gingiva** (gum tissue). - These lesions are typically inflammatory or reactive in nature, arising from the connective tissue of the gum. *Enamel* - **Enamel** is the hard, outermost protective layer of the tooth crown, which is of ectodermal origin. - Lesions originating from enamel itself are rare and typically involve developmental defects or structural damage, not soft tissue growths like epulis. *Root of teeth* - The **root of the teeth** is embedded in the alveolar bone and covered by cementum, with the surrounding structures including the periodontal ligament and alveolar bone. - While infections or cysts can arise from the root, epulis specifically describes a growth of the overlying **gingival tissue**. *Pulp* - The **pulp** is the soft tissue inside the tooth containing nerves, blood vessels, and connective tissue. - Pathologies originating from the pulp are typically infectious (pulpitis), degenerative, or involve growth of odontogenic tissues (e.g., pulp polyps within the tooth chamber), not surface gingival lesions.
Pediatrics
4 questionsWhich of the following statements is true regarding anemia of prematurity?
Diarrhoea in a child of 12 months, dose of Zinc is?
At what age do children typically begin to say short sentences of 4-5 words?
Rubella is known to cause all of the following conditions except:
NEET-PG 2012 - Pediatrics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1081: Which of the following statements is true regarding anemia of prematurity?
- A. Low reticulocyte response (Correct Answer)
- B. Hemoglobin level <10 gm/dL
- C. 10 ml/kg packed cell transfusion
- D. Microcytic hypochromic type
Explanation: ***Low reticulocyte response*** - Anemia of prematurity results from several factors, including a **blunted erythropoietin response** to anemia, **shortened red blood cell lifespan**, and **rapid growth with increased blood volume requirements**. - The combination of these factors leads to **insufficient red blood cell production** by the bone marrow, reflected by a **low reticulocyte count** despite anemia. - This low reticulocyte response is a **key diagnostic feature** distinguishing it from hemolytic anemias. *Hemoglobin level <10 gm/dL* - While premature infants with anemia of prematurity develop low hemoglobin, a specific cutoff of **<10 gm/dL is not universally definitive** for diagnosis. - Hemoglobin nadirs vary based on **gestational age** (more premature = lower nadir) and occur at different postnatal ages. - Transfusion thresholds are determined by **clinical stability and symptoms**, not just a single Hb value. *10 ml/kg packed cell transfusion* - This describes a **treatment intervention**, not a characteristic of the disease itself. - Transfusion volume is typically **10-15 ml/kg** when indicated, but the decision to transfuse depends on gestational age, postnatal age, clinical stability, and symptoms like apnea or bradycardia. - This is **not a defining feature** of anemia of prematurity. *Microcytic hypochromic type* - Anemia of prematurity is typically **normocytic, normochromic**, not microcytic hypochromic. - **Microcytic hypochromic** anemia suggests **iron deficiency**, which is a different condition. - The red cells in anemia of prematurity have **normal size (MCV) and normal hemoglobin content** per cell.
Question 1082: Diarrhoea in a child of 12 months, dose of Zinc is?
- A. 1 mg / 10 - 14 day
- B. 10 mg / 10 - 14 day
- C. 20 mg / 10 - 14 day (Correct Answer)
- D. 15 mg / 10 - 14 day
Explanation: **20 mg / 10 - 14 day** - For children aged **12 months and older**, the recommended dose of zinc for acute diarrhea is **20 mg** once daily for **10 to 14 days**. - This dosage helps reduce the severity and duration of diarrheal episodes and prevents future occurrences. *1 mg / 10 - 14 day* - This dosage is **too low** and would be ineffective in treating or preventing the future incidence of diarrhea in a 12-month-old child. - Subtherapeutic doses will not provide the necessary micronutrient support during diarrheal illness. *10 mg / 10 - 14 day* - This is the recommended dose for children **under 6 months of age**, not for a 12-month-old child. - While it's a correct dosage for a different age group, it is an insufficient dose for a 12-month-old. *15 mg / 10 - 14 day* - This dose is **not the standard recommendation** by major health organizations like WHO or UNICEF for any age group for treating diarrhea. - It falls between the standard dosages and may not provide optimal benefit.
Question 1083: At what age do children typically begin to say short sentences of 4-5 words?
- A. 2 years
- B. 3 years
- C. 4 years (Correct Answer)
- D. 5 years
Explanation: ***4 years*** - By this age, children typically have a vocabulary of **1,500-2,500 words** and can construct sentences of **4-5 words**, demonstrating improved grammatical structure and complexity. - They can also tell simple stories and use pronouns and plurals correctly. *2 years* - Children at this age typically combine **two to three words** into short phrases, such as "more milk" or "daddy go." - Their vocabulary usually consists of about **50-200 words**, not enough for 4-5 word sentences. *3 years* - Three-year-olds usually speak in **three- to four-word sentences**, such as "I want big cookie." - Their vocabulary is typically around **900-1,000 words**, but they are still developing the complexity needed for consistent 4-5 word sentences. *5 years* - By age five, children can typically speak in much **longer and more complex sentences** (5-6+ words) and are mastering grammar rules. - They can comprehend and communicate more nuanced ideas, surpassing the milestone of 4-5 word sentences.
Question 1084: Rubella is known to cause all of the following conditions except:
- A. Conduction defects
- B. VSD
- C. Microcephaly
- D. Glaucoma (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Glaucoma*** - While rubella can cause **ocular defects** such as **cataracts** and **pigmentary retinopathy**, glaucoma is not a typical congenital manifestation of rubella syndrome. - **Congenital glaucoma** is more commonly associated with other genetic syndromes or developmental anomalies. *Microcephaly* - **Microcephaly** is a recognized neurological complication of congenital rubella syndrome, resulting from impaired brain development due to viral infection. - The rubella virus can interfere with the **proliferation and migration** of neuronal cells during fetal development. *VSD* - **Ventricular septal defect (VSD)** is a common congenital heart defect associated with congenital rubella syndrome. - Other cardiac anomalies seen include **patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)** and **pulmonary artery stenosis**. *Conduction defects* - **Conduction defects** and other **cardiac arrhythmias** can occur in congenital rubella syndrome due to direct viral damage to the developing cardiac conduction system. - This can manifest as **bradyarrhythmias** or various degrees of **heart block**.
Psychiatry
1 questionsWhich of the following is NOT a characteristic of LEOPARD syndrome?
NEET-PG 2012 - Psychiatry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1081: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of LEOPARD syndrome?
- A. Growth retardation
- B. ECG changes
- C. Hypertelorism
- D. Hypergonadism (Correct Answer)
- E. Lentigines
Explanation: ***Hypergonadism*** - **LEOPARD syndrome** is characterized by **hypogonadism** (underdevelopment or dysfunction of the gonads) and delayed puberty, not hypergonadism. - The acronym LEOPARD stands for multiple clinical features which include **L**entigines, **E**CG conduction abnormalities, **O**cular hypertelorism, **P**ulmonary stenosis, **A**bnormal genitalia, **R**etardation of growth, and **D**eafness. *Growth retardation* - **Retardation of growth** is a defining characteristic of LEOPARD syndrome, often manifesting as short stature. - This is part of the "R" in the LEOPARD acronym, indicating a failure to achieve normal growth milestones. *ECG changes* - **ECG conduction abnormalities** (such as prolonged PR interval, bundle branch block, or Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome) are primary diagnostic features. - These cardiac issues can be significant and contribute to the morbidity associated with the syndrome. *Hypertelorism* - **Ocular hypertelorism**, meaning widely spaced eyes, is a common facial dysmorphism found in individuals with LEOPARD syndrome. - This feature is represented by the "O" in the LEOPARD acronym, along with other craniofacial anomalies. *Lentigines* - **Lentigines** are multiple pigmented macules (small, flat, darkened spots) that are the hallmark dermatologic feature of LEOPARD syndrome. - These represent the "L" in the LEOPARD acronym and are typically present from early childhood, increasing in number with age.
Radiology
1 questionsA polytrauma patient's CT brain shows a crescent-shaped extra-axial collection with a concave inner margin. What is the most likely diagnosis?
NEET-PG 2012 - Radiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1081: A polytrauma patient's CT brain shows a crescent-shaped extra-axial collection with a concave inner margin. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. EDH
- B. SDH (Correct Answer)
- C. Contusion
- D. Diffuse axonal injury
Explanation: ***SDH*** - The image shows a **crescent-shaped collection** of hemorrhage with a concave inner margin, consistent with a **subdural hematoma** (SDH). - SDHs result from the tearing of **bridging veins** and typically conform to the brain's surface, crossing suture lines but not limited by bony sutures. *EDH* - An **epidural hematoma (EDH)** characteristically appears as a **lenticular** or **biconvex** shape on CT, not crescent-shaped. - EDHs are typically caused by arterial bleeding, often from the **middle meningeal artery**, and are limited by cranial sutures. *Contusion* - A **contusion** is brain tissue bruising that appears as **heterogeneous areas** of hemorrhage and edema within the brain parenchyma itself. - It would not manifest as a distinct extra-axial collection with a smooth, concave margin. *Diffuse axonal injury* - **Diffuse axonal injury (DAI)** involves widespread microscopic damage to axons, often at the gray-white matter junction. - It may appear as *punctate hemorrhages* or **small lesions** at these junctions on CT, but often the CT can be normal, and it would not present as a large extra-axial collection.
Surgery
3 questionsWhich of the following is not considered a contraindication for pancreaticoduodenectomy?
Diversion of urine is best done at
Which of the following is NOT a standard component of the triple test for breast cancer detection?
NEET-PG 2012 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1081: Which of the following is not considered a contraindication for pancreaticoduodenectomy?
- A. Metastasis
- B. Portal vein involvement (Correct Answer)
- C. Extensive invasion of superior mesenteric vein
- D. Stage III CA head of pancreas
Explanation: ***Portal vein involvement*** - While extensive portal vein invasion can make the procedure challenging, **segmental portal vein involvement without complete occlusion or direct invasion of the superior mesenteric artery** is often considered resectable with venous reconstruction and is not an absolute contraindication. - Advancements in surgical techniques and patient selection criteria allow for **safe resection and reconstruction of the portal vein** in carefully chosen cases, improving outcomes for patients who would otherwise be deemed inoperable. *Metastasis* - The presence of **distant metastases** (e.g., to the liver, peritoneum, or lungs) unequivocally indicates **Stage IV disease** and is an absolute contraindication to pancreaticoduodenectomy, as the surgery would not offer a curative benefit. - In such cases, systemic chemotherapy or palliative care is the more appropriate treatment approach, as resection would not alter the overall prognosis. *Stage III CA head of pancreas* - **Stage III carcinoma of the head of the pancreas** often implies **locally advanced disease** that involves major peripancreatic vessels, such as the superior mesenteric artery or celiac axis. - This level of extensive vascular involvement typically renders the tumor **unresectable**, making pancreaticoduodenectomy surgically unfeasible and a contraindication. *Extensive invasion of superior mesenteric vein* - **Extensive involvement of the superior mesenteric vein (SMV)**, particularly if it completely occludes the lumen or involves a long segment making reconstruction impossible, is generally considered a contraindication to pancreaticoduodenectomy. - While limited SMV involvement with reconstructive options might be resectable, **extensive, unreconstructable invasion** signifies locally advanced disease beyond surgical cure.
Question 1082: Diversion of urine is best done at
- A. Jejunum
- B. Colon
- C. Ileum (Correct Answer)
- D. Caecum
Explanation: ***Ileum*** - The **ileum** is the most commonly used segment for urinary diversion due to its **mobility**, adequate vascular supply, and low complication rates. - Its relatively **low absorptive capacity** for electrolytes, particularly urea and ammonia, minimizes metabolic disturbances. *Jejunum* - The **jejunum** has a high absorptive capacity, which can lead to significant **electrolyte imbalances** (e.g., hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic acidosis) when urine is diverted into it. - It is also more prone to **stomal stenosis** and bowel obstruction compared to the ileum. *Colon* - While the colon can be used, particularly in continent diversions, it has a **thicker wall** and can be less mobile, making surgical creation of a conduit more challenging. - Similar to the jejunum, it has a **higher absorptive capacity** than the ileum, which can lead to electrolyte disturbances. *Caecum* - The **caecum** is a possible site for continent urinary diversions (e.g., cecal pouch), but it is not typically used for simple incontinent conduits due to its **anatomical position** and surgical complexity. - Its use often requires additional procedures to ensure continence and prevent reflux.
Question 1083: Which of the following is NOT a standard component of the triple test for breast cancer detection?
- A. USG/ mammography
- B. Breast self examination (Correct Answer)
- C. Clinical examination
- D. FNAC/ trucut biopsy
Explanation: ***Breast self examination*** - While **breast self-examination (BSE)** is important for **personal awareness** and **early detection**, it is not considered a standard component of the diagnostic "triple test" for breast cancer, which aims for definitive diagnosis. - The traditional triple test comprises **clinical examination**, **imaging** (mammography/ultrasound), and **pathological assessment** (FNAC/biopsy). *USG/ mammography* - **Mammography** and **ultrasonography (USG)** are crucial imaging modalities and an integral part of the **triple test**, providing detailed anatomical information about breast lesions. - They help characterize masses detected clinically and guide biopsy procedures, contributing significantly to diagnosis. *FNAC/ trucut biopsy* - **Fine needle aspiration cytology (FNAC)** and **tru-cut biopsy** are essential for **histopathological diagnosis**, confirming malignancy and determining tumor characteristics. - This is the third component of the triple test, providing a definitive cellular or tissue diagnosis. *Clinical examination* - A **thorough clinical breast examination** by a healthcare professional is the first step in the triple test, identifying palpable masses or other suspicious signs. - It involves **inspection** and **palpation** to assess breast tissue and lymph nodes.