Anesthesiology
1 questionsWhich of the following is NOT a contraindication for spinal anaesthesia?
NEET-PG 2012 - Anesthesiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1061: Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for spinal anaesthesia?
- A. Raised intracranial tension
- B. Bleeding disorder
- C. Hypertension (Correct Answer)
- D. Infection at injection site
Explanation: ***Hypertension*** - While **severe uncontrolled hypertension** may necessitate blood pressure stabilization before surgery, **mild to moderate hypertension** is not an absolute contraindication for spinal anesthesia. - In fact, spinal anesthesia can sometimes be beneficial in hypertensive patients due to its **vasodilatory effects**, which may help lower blood pressure. *Bleeding disorder* - A **bleeding disorder** (e.g., thrombocytopenia, coagulopathy) is a **major contraindication** due to the high risk of **epidural or spinal hematoma** formation. - A hematoma can lead to **spinal cord compression** and irreversible neurological damage. *Raised intracranial tension* - **Raised intracranial tension (ICT)** is a **strict contraindication** because the drop in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) pressure during spinal anesthesia can worsen the pressure gradient across the foramen magnum. - This can precipitate **herniation of the brainstem** and lead to catastrophic neurological injury or death. *Infection at injection site* - The presence of an **infection at the injection site** is an absolute contraindication as it poses a significant risk of introducing bacteria into the **subarachnoid space**. - This can lead to serious complications such as **meningitis** or a **spinal abscess**.
Pharmacology
2 questionsWhat is the effect of adding epinephrine to lignocaine (a local anesthetic)?
Which amino acid-derived neurotransmitter is primarily targeted in the pharmacological treatment of depression?
NEET-PG 2012 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1061: What is the effect of adding epinephrine to lignocaine (a local anesthetic)?
- A. Increases distribution of local anesthetic
- B. Decreases absorption of local anesthetic (Correct Answer)
- C. Decreases duration of local anesthetic
- D. Increases metabolism of local anesthetic
Explanation: ***Decreases absorption of local anesthetic*** - Epinephrine causes **vasoconstriction** at the site of injection, which reduces the rate at which the local anesthetic is absorbed into the systemic circulation. - This slower absorption leads to a **higher concentration of the anesthetic** at the nerve fibers, prolonging its effect and reducing systemic toxicity. - This is the primary mechanism by which epinephrine enhances local anesthetic efficacy. *Increases distribution of local anesthetic* - The primary effect of epinephrine is to **localize the anesthetic** by reducing its systemic distribution. - This localization is achieved through **vasoconstriction**, which keeps the drug at the desired site rather than allowing it to distribute widely. *Decreases duration of local anesthetic* - By slowing absorption, epinephrine effectively **increases the duration of action** of the local anesthetic. - The anesthetic remains at the site of action for a longer period, providing **extended pain relief**. *Increases metabolism of local anesthetic* - Epinephrine does not directly affect the **metabolic rate** of local anesthetics. - The primary mechanism of metabolism for amides like lignocaine is in the **liver** by cytochrome P450 enzymes.
Question 1062: Which amino acid-derived neurotransmitter is primarily targeted in the pharmacological treatment of depression?
- A. Histamine
- B. None of the options
- C. Serotonin (Correct Answer)
- D. Acetylcholine
Explanation: ***Serotonin*** - **Serotonin** is an amino acid-derived neurotransmitter (from **tryptophan**) known to play a crucial role in mood regulation, sleep, appetite, and other functions, making it a primary target for **antidepressant medications**. - Medications like **Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)** increase serotonin levels in the brain to alleviate symptoms of depression. *Histamine* - **Histamine** is an amino acid-derived neurotransmitter (from **histidine**) primarily involved in allergic reactions, inflammation, and regulating wakefulness. - While it has some central nervous system effects, its primary role is not directly in the treatment of **depression**. *Acetylcholine* - **Acetylcholine** is a neurotransmitter involved in muscle contraction, learning, memory, and attention, and is not derived from amino acids; it is synthesized from **choline** and acetyl-CoA. - It is not directly used for treating **depression**, although imbalances can play a role in cognitive aspects of some psychiatric disorders. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **Serotonin** is indeed an amino acid-derived neurotransmitter (from tryptophan) targeted for treating **depression**. - Many antidepressant drugs work by modulating **serotonergic pathways**.
Psychiatry
2 questionsWhich of the following factors is most commonly associated with suicidal tendencies?
Which of the following is not a characteristic of schizoid personality disorder?
NEET-PG 2012 - Psychiatry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1061: Which of the following factors is most commonly associated with suicidal tendencies?
- A. Female gender
- B. Severe depression (Correct Answer)
- C. Chronic illness
- D. Younger age group
Explanation: ***Severe depression*** - **Major depressive disorder** is the strongest and most common risk factor for suicidal ideation and attempts, significantly increasing suicidal tendencies [1]. - The profound **hopelessness**, **worthlessness**, and altered cognitive processing associated with severe depression contribute largely to suicidal thoughts [2]. - Depression is present in approximately **90%** of individuals who die by suicide. *Female gender* - While **females** have higher rates of **suicide attempts** and self-harm, **males** have a higher rate of completed suicides using more lethal methods. - Female gender alone is not the most common risk factor for suicidal tendencies compared to the profound impact of severe mental illness like depression [1]. *Chronic illness* - **Chronic medical conditions** can increase the risk of depression and subsequent suicidal ideation due to pain, functional limitations, and loss of independence [3]. - However, chronic illness is generally considered an **indirect risk factor**, often mediating its effect through the development of mental health disorders like depression [3]. *Younger age group* - Suicide is a leading cause of death in **adolescents and young adults**, highlighting significant concern in this demographic [1]. - While younger age is a risk factor, especially with concurrent mental health issues or stressors, it is not as universally predictive of suicidal tendencies as severe depression across all age groups [1].
Question 1062: Which of the following is not a characteristic of schizoid personality disorder?
- A. Prone to fantasy
- B. Introspective
- C. Aloof & detached
- D. Suspicious (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Suspicious*** - **Suspiciousness** and mistrust of others are core features of **paranoid personality disorder**, not schizoid personality disorder. - Individuals with schizoid personality disorder are typically apathetic towards others rather than actively distrustful. *Aloof & detached* - Individuals with schizoid personality disorder are characterized by a pervasive pattern of **detachment from social relationships** and a restricted range of emotional expression. - They often appear emotionally cold and indifferent to praise or criticism, indicating their aloof nature. *Prone to fantasy* - People with schizoid personality disorder frequently engage in **excessive daydreaming** and imaginative fantasy as an escape from reality. - This tendency is a coping mechanism for their limited social interaction and emotional expression. *Introspective* - Schizoid individuals tend to be **preoccupied with their inner world** and thoughts, often to the exclusion of external social interactions. - Their introspective nature contributes to their social withdrawal and isolation.
Radiology
5 questionsThe most appropriate first-line imaging modality to detect adrenal metastasis due to bronchogenic carcinoma is:
Which of the following conditions characteristically causes bilateral hypertranslucency of lung fields on chest X-ray?
Which of the following is not typically seen on a chest X-ray in pulmonary artery hypertension?
Investigation of choice for intramedullary SOL is -
Popcorn calcification is seen in:
NEET-PG 2012 - Radiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1061: The most appropriate first-line imaging modality to detect adrenal metastasis due to bronchogenic carcinoma is:
- A. PET scan
- B. MRI of the abdomen
- C. Adrenal radionuclide scan
- D. Contrast Enhanced CT abdomen (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Contrast Enhanced CT abdomen** - **Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen** is generally considered the most sensitive and cost-effective imaging modality for detecting **adrenal metastases**. - It allows for detailed visualization of adrenal gland morphology, including size, shape, and enhancement patterns, which can help differentiate benign from malignant lesions. *PET scan* - While **PET (Positron Emission Tomography) scans** are highly sensitive for detecting metabolically active metastatic disease, they are often used as a secondary imaging modality to characterize indeterminate lesions found on CT or MRI. - **PET scans** can have false positives in benign adrenal tumors (e.g., adenomas rich in fat) and are less readily available or higher in cost for initial screening compared to CT. *MRI of the abdomen* - **MRI of the abdomen** can be very useful for further characterization of adrenal masses, especially for distinguishing between lipid-rich adenomas and metastases. - However, for initial detection, especially in the context of screening for distant metastases from bronchogenic carcinoma, **CT is generally preferred due to its wider availability, speed, and lower cost**. *Adrenal radionuclide scan* - **Adrenal radionuclide scans** (e.g., using MIBG or iodocholesterol) are primarily used for functional imaging of adrenal glands, typically to detect specific types of tumors like pheochromocytomas or aldosteronomas. - These scans are **not sensitive for detecting adrenal metastases** from bronchogenic carcinoma, as the metastatic lesions do not typically exhibit the specific uptake patterns targeted by these radiotracers.
Question 1062: Which of the following conditions characteristically causes bilateral hypertranslucency of lung fields on chest X-ray?
- A. Mcleod syndrome
- B. Poland syndrome
- C. Emphysema (Correct Answer)
- D. Pneumothorax
Explanation: ***Correct: Emphysema*** - **Emphysema** causes destruction of alveolar walls, leading to enlarged air spaces and **air trapping**, making both lungs appear hypertranslucent on X-ray - This **bilateral hypertranslucency** is due to reduced lung tissue density, decreased vascular markings, and increased air volume - Classic radiographic features include flattened diaphragms, increased retrosternal space, and hyperlucent lung fields *Incorrect: Mcleod syndrome* - Also known as **Swyer–James–MacLeod syndrome**, this condition causes **unilateral** lung or lobe hyperlucency due to post-infectious obliterative bronchiolitis - The key differentiating feature is that it's **unilateral**, whereas the question asks for bilateral hypertranslucency - Affected lung shows air trapping on expiratory films *Incorrect: Pneumothorax* - A **pneumothorax** presents as a **unilateral** or focal hypertranslucent area due to air in the pleural space - Characterized by **absence of lung markings** beyond the visceral pleural line and associated lung collapse - This is a pleural space abnormality, not a bilateral parenchymal lung disease *Incorrect: Poland syndrome* - **Poland syndrome** is a congenital condition with absence or underdevelopment of the pectoralis major muscle - Can lead to **unilateral** apparent hyperlucency on the affected side due to missing chest wall muscle - This is a **chest wall anomaly**, not a parenchymal lung disease causing bilateral hypertranslucency
Question 1063: Which of the following is not typically seen on a chest X-ray in pulmonary artery hypertension?
- A. Enlargement of central arteries
- B. Peripheral pruning
- C. Narrowing of central arteries (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Narrowing of central arteries*** - **Pulmonary artery hypertension** is characterized by the **enlargement of the central pulmonary arteries** due to increased pressure. - **Narrowing of central arteries** would contradict the hemodynamic changes seen in pulmonary hypertension. - This is the finding that is **NOT typically seen**, making this the correct answer. *Enlargement of central arteries* - This is a **hallmark radiographic finding** in pulmonary hypertension, reflecting the **dilatation of the main and proximal pulmonary arteries** due to increased pressure. - The **pulmonary artery segment becomes prominent**, often appearing convex on the left heart border. *Peripheral pruning* - This refers to the **abrupt tapering and loss of peripheral pulmonary vascular markings**, indicating reduced blood flow to the distal lung parenchyma. - It is a **common finding in advanced pulmonary hypertension**, as the distal vessels constrict and become obliterated. *None of the options* - This is incorrect since **narrowing of central arteries** is clearly not a typical finding in pulmonary hypertension.
Question 1064: Investigation of choice for intramedullary SOL is -
- A. MRI (Correct Answer)
- B. USG
- C. CT
- D. X-ray
Explanation: ***MRI*** - **Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)** is the investigation of choice for intramedullary lesions due to its superior **soft tissue contrast** and ability to visualize the **spinal cord** parenchyma. - It provides detailed information on lesion size, location, and internal characteristics, which is crucial for diagnosis and surgical planning. *USG* - **Ultrasound (USG)** has limited utility for intramedullary lesions as a primary diagnostic tool because **bone impedes sound waves**, making it difficult to visualize structures within the spinal canal. - It might be used for neonatal spinal screening or intraoperative guidance, but not for definitive diagnosis of intramedullary lesions in adults. *CT* - **Computed Tomography (CT)** excels at visualizing **bone structures** and calcifications, but it provides less detailed information about soft tissue elements like the spinal cord compared to MRI. - While it can identify bony changes associated with intramedullary lesions, it is not the preferred initial imaging modality for characterizing the lesion itself. *X-ray* - **X-rays** provide basic imaging of bone but offer essentially **no visualization of soft tissues** such as the spinal cord or intramedullary lesions. - They are primarily used to identify gross bony abnormalities like fractures or severe degenerative changes, not for subtle intraspinal pathologies.
Question 1065: Popcorn calcification is seen in:
- A. Pulmonary hamartoma (Correct Answer)
- B. Bronchogenic carcinoma
- C. Tuberculosis
- D. Pulmonary metastases
Explanation: ***Pulmonary hamartoma*** - **Popcorn calcification** is a pathognomonic radiographic finding highly suggestive of **pulmonary hamartoma**, a **benign tumor** composed of cartilage, fat, and connective tissue - This characteristic calcification pattern is due to the presence of **chondroid (cartilaginous) tissue** within the lesion - Appears as coarse, irregular calcifications resembling popcorn on chest X-ray or CT scan *Bronchogenic carcinoma* - Malignant lung lesions typically show **irregular, spiculated, or ill-defined margins** and tend to grow rapidly - While calcification can occur in some lung malignancies, it usually appears as **eccentric, stippled, or amorphous** rather than the distinctive popcorn pattern - Popcorn calcification is not a feature of primary lung cancers *Tuberculosis* - **Granulomatous infections** such as tuberculosis often lead to calcification, but it usually presents as **laminated, clustered, or target-like patterns** in lymph nodes or within granulomas (Ghon lesion, Ranke complex) - **Popcorn calcification** is not a typical feature of active or healed tuberculous lesions *Pulmonary metastases* - **Metastatic lesions** are generally not calcified, although a few primary tumors (e.g., mucinous adenocarcinoma, osteosarcoma, chondrosarcoma) can metastasize as calcified nodules - When calcification is present in metastases, it is rarely in the specific **popcorn pattern** and is usually diffuse, punctate, or amorphous