Dermatology
1 questionsWhich of the following is NOT a characteristic of pemphigus vulgaris?
NEET-PG 2012 - Dermatology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 991: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of pemphigus vulgaris?
- A. Oral erosions
- B. Tzanck smear showing acantholytic cells
- C. Positive Nikolsky’s sign
- D. Subepidermal bulla (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Subepidermal bulla*** - Pemphigus vulgaris is characterized by **intraepidermal bullae** resulting from acantholysis (loss of cohesion between keratinocytes), not subepidermal bullae. - **Subepidermal bullae** are characteristic of conditions like **bullous pemphigoid**, where the split occurs below the epidermis. *Positive Nikolsky’s sign* - The **Nikolsky's sign** is positive in pemphigus vulgaris, indicating the fragility of the skin where gentle lateral pressure causes epidermal shearing. - This sign is a direct result of the **intraepidermal blistering** due to weakened cell-to-cell adhesion. *Oral erosions* - **Oral erosions** are a very common and often the initial manifestation of pemphigus vulgaris, frequently preceding skin lesions. - These painful erosions are persistent and heal slowly, sometimes making eating difficult. *Tzanck smear showing acantholytic cells* - A **Tzanck smear** from a fresh blister in pemphigus vulgaris typically reveals **acantholytic cells**, which are detached, rounded keratinocytes with basophilic cytoplasm. - The presence of acantholytic cells confirms the **loss of intercellular adhesion** within the epidermis, a hallmark of pemphigus.
Internal Medicine
4 questionsWhat is the most reliable diagnostic tool to differentiate between psychological and organic erectile dysfunction?
Distal renal tubular acidosis is associated with:
What is the preferred test for confirming H. pylori eradication?
Anomic aphasia is due to defect in
NEET-PG 2012 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 991: What is the most reliable diagnostic tool to differentiate between psychological and organic erectile dysfunction?
- A. Nocturnal penile tumescence (Correct Answer)
- B. PIPE therapy
- C. Sildenafil induced erection
- D. Squeeze technique
Explanation: ***Nocturnal penile tumescence*** - This diagnostic tool assesses whether a man experiences erections during sleep, which are naturally occurring physiological events. The presence of normal nocturnal erections indicates intact **neurovascular pathways** necessary for erection, suggesting that any daytime erectile dysfunction is likely due to **psychological factors** [2]. - Conversely, the absence of nocturnal erections points towards an **organic cause** for erectile dysfunction, as the physiological mechanism itself is impaired [1]. *Squeeze technique* - The squeeze technique is a behavioral therapy used to treat **premature ejaculation**, not erectile dysfunction. It involves stopping stimulation at the point of impending ejaculation and applying pressure to the glans to reduce arousal. - This technique does not provide any diagnostic information regarding the underlying cause (psychological vs. organic) of erectile dysfunction. *Sildenafil induced erection* - While sildenafil (Viagra) can induce an erection in many men with erectile dysfunction, its response does not reliably differentiate between psychological and organic causes. Sildenafil works by enhancing the effects of **nitric oxide**, leading to increased blood flow to the penis. - Both men with psychological erectile dysfunction and some with organic causes (e.g., mild vascular compromise) may respond to sildenafil, so a positive response does not rule out an **organic etiology**. *PIPE therapy* - "PIPE therapy" is not a recognized medical or diagnostic term for erectile dysfunction. It may be a typo or a misnomer. - Therefore, it does not serve as a diagnostic tool for differentiating between psychological and organic causes of erectile dysfunction.
Question 992: Distal renal tubular acidosis is associated with:
- A. Hypocitraturia
- B. Oxalate stones
- C. Calcium stones (Correct Answer)
- D. Uric acid stones
Explanation: ***Calcium stones*** - Distal renal tubular acidosis (Type 1 RTA) causes metabolic acidosis due to impaired distal tubular **hydrogen ion secretion**. - This leads to **increased urinary calcium excretion** (hypercalciuria) and decreased urinary citrate, creating an environment favorable for the formation of **calcium phosphate renal stones**. *Oxalate stones* - While oxalate is a component of some calcium stones (calcium oxalate), **primary hyperoxaluria** or dietary excess of oxalate are the main causes, not directly distal RTA. - Distal RTA specifically promotes **calcium phosphate stone formation** due to pH changes and hypercalciuria. *Hypocitraturia* - **Hypocitraturia** is indeed a feature of distal RTA as the kidney attempts to excrete acid by reabsorbing citrate, making the urine less inhibitory to stone formation. - However, the most direct and common clinically observed consequence in stone formation is the development of **calcium stones**, as hypocitraturia combined with hypercalciuria facilitates their formation. *Uric acid stones* - **Uric acid stones** typically form in persistently **acidic urine** and are associated with conditions like gout or myeloproliferative disorders. - While distal RTA results in systemic acidosis, the urine pH in distal RTA is typically **alkaline or inappropriately neutral**, which does not favor uric acid stone formation.
Question 993: What is the preferred test for confirming H. pylori eradication?
- A. Urease breath test (Correct Answer)
- B. Culture
- C. Serological test
- D. Biopsy urease test
Explanation: ***Urease breath test*** - The **urea breath test** is highly sensitive and specific for detecting active *H. pylori* infection and its eradication by measuring radioactive or non-radioactive labeled carbon dioxide released from metabolizing urea. - It is a non-invasive test preferred after treatment to confirm eradication, as it directly detects bacterial urease activity. *Culture* - **Culture** requires an invasive endoscopic biopsy, is expensive, and takes several days to yield results; therefore, it is not the preferred method for routine eradication confirmation. - While it offers the advantage of **antibiotic susceptibility testing**, its invasiveness and turnaround time make it less practical for post-treatment assessment. *Serological test* - **Serological tests** (blood tests for antibodies) remain positive for **H. pylori antibodies** for extended periods even after successful eradication, rendering them unsuitable for confirming eradication. - These tests primarily indicate past exposure rather than current, active infection. *Biopsy urease test* - A **biopsy urease test** involves an invasive endoscopy to obtain a tissue sample, which is then tested for urease activity. - Although useful for initial diagnosis, its invasiveness makes it less preferred for confirming eradication compared to the non-invasive breath test.
Question 994: Anomic aphasia is due to defect in
- A. Left inferior parietal lobe
- B. Left temporal lobe
- C. Temporal occipital lobe (Correct Answer)
- D. Cerebellum
Explanation: ***Temporal occipital lobe*** - Anomic aphasia, characterized by difficulty recalling **words or names (anomia)**, is most commonly associated with lesions in the **left temporo-occipital region**. - This area is crucial for **semantic processing** and word retrieval. *Left inferior parietal lobe* - Damage to the left inferior parietal lobe is more commonly associated with **conduction aphasia**, characterized by impaired repetition despite fluent speech and good comprehension. - It is also involved in aspects of **reading (alexia)** and **writing (agraphia)**. *Left temporal lobe* - While portions of the left temporal lobe (especially Wernicke's area) are critical for language comprehension, damage primarily to this area typically results in **Wernicke's aphasia**, where speech is fluent but meaningless, and comprehension is severely impaired. - Anomia can be a feature of Wernicke's aphasia, but the primary deficit is comprehension. *Cerebellum* - The cerebellum plays a significant role in **motor control**, balance, and coordination, but it is not directly involved in the **generation or comprehension of language** in the same way as cortical areas. - Damage to the cerebellum might lead to **dysarthria** (speech motor difficulties), but not typical aphasia.
Ophthalmology
1 questionsWhich structures are most commonly involved in a ciliary staphyloma?
NEET-PG 2012 - Ophthalmology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 991: Which structures are most commonly involved in a ciliary staphyloma?
- A. Choroid and sclera
- B. Cornea and conjunctiva
- C. Iris and sclera
- D. Ciliary body and sclera (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Ciliary body and sclera*** - A **staphyloma** is a localized bulging of the outer coat of the eye (sclera or cornea) lined internally by uveal tissue. - A **ciliary staphyloma** specifically involves the **ciliary body** and **sclera** at the region of the ciliary body, typically presenting as a dark bluish bulge at the limbal or perilimbal area. - This occurs due to weakening and ectasia of the sclera with prolapse of the underlying ciliary body, commonly seen following scleritis, perforating injuries, or surgeries. *Choroid and sclera* - This combination describes a **posterior staphyloma**, which occurs at the posterior pole of the eye, commonly seen in pathological myopia. - While medically accurate for posterior type, it does not describe a **ciliary staphyloma**. *Iris and sclera* - An **anterior staphyloma** primarily involves bulging of the **cornea** with incarceration of iris tissue, rather than sclera alone. - It occurs after corneal perforation with iris prolapse. *Cornea and conjunctiva* - This does not describe a staphyloma. Bulging of the cornea alone is termed **keratectasia** or **keratoconus**. - The **conjunctiva** is a superficial membrane and is not a structural component of staphyloma formation.
Physiology
1 questionsWhich of the following is used for the diagnosis of asthma?
NEET-PG 2012 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 991: Which of the following is used for the diagnosis of asthma?
- A. Measurement of tidal volume
- B. End expiratory flow rate
- C. Total lung capacity
- D. FEV1 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***FEV1*** - **Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1)** is the gold standard spirometric parameter for asthma diagnosis - Key diagnostic criteria include: - Reduced **FEV1/FVC ratio** (<0.70 or <0.75-0.80 in adults) - **Bronchodilator reversibility**: ≥12% and ≥200 mL increase in FEV1 after inhaled short-acting β2-agonist - This reversibility distinguishes asthma from fixed obstructive diseases like COPD - Serial **peak expiratory flow (PEF)** monitoring can also demonstrate variability characteristic of asthma *Measurement of tidal volume* - **Tidal volume** measures the amount of air inhaled or exhaled during normal breathing (typically ~500 mL at rest) - Not a diagnostic parameter for asthma as it doesn't assess **airway obstruction** or **hyperresponsiveness** - May be reduced during acute exacerbations but lacks specificity for asthma diagnosis *End expiratory flow rate* - Not a standard diagnostic parameter for asthma - While **mid-expiratory flow rates** (FEF25-75%) and **peak expiratory flow (PEF)** are assessed, **FEV1** remains the primary diagnostic measure - FEV1 provides better reproducibility and standardization for diagnosis *Total lung capacity* - **Total lung capacity (TLC)** represents total lung volume after maximal inhalation - May be normal or increased in asthma due to **air trapping** and hyperinflation - Not used as a primary diagnostic criterion as asthma diagnosis focuses on demonstrating **reversible airflow limitation**, not lung volumes
Psychiatry
3 questionsWhich of the following is not associated with subcortical dementia?
What is the term for a persistent preoccupation with serious illness despite having no or only mild symptoms?
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of somatization disorder?
NEET-PG 2012 - Psychiatry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 991: Which of the following is not associated with subcortical dementia?
- A. Wilson's disease
- B. Alzheimer's disease (Correct Answer)
- C. Huntington's chorea
- D. Parkinsonism
Explanation: ***Alzheimer's disease*** - Alzheimer's disease is primarily a **cortical dementia**, characterized by global cognitive decline, specifically affecting memory, language, and executive functions. - It involves the accumulation of **amyloid plaques** and **neurofibrillary tangles** predominantly in the cerebral cortex. *Parkinsonism* - Parkinsonism, particularly Parkinson's disease dementia, is a common cause of **subcortical dementia**. - It presents with prominent **motor symptoms** (bradykinesia, rigidity, tremor) along with cognitive impairment affecting executive function and attention. *Wilson's disease* - Wilson's disease is a genetic disorder leading to **copper accumulation**, which can cause significant damage to the basal ganglia and other subcortical structures. - This often results in a **subcortical dementia** characterized by motor symptoms, psychiatric disturbances, and cognitive decline. *Huntington's chorea* - Huntington's chorea is a neurodegenerative genetic disorder primarily affecting the **basal ganglia**, a key subcortical structure. - It is a classic example of **subcortical dementia**, presenting with characteristic choreiform movements, psychiatric disturbances, and cognitive impairment.
Question 992: What is the term for a persistent preoccupation with serious illness despite having no or only mild symptoms?
- A. Somatic symptom disorder
- B. Conversion disorder
- C. Body dysmorphic disorder
- D. Illness anxiety disorder (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Illness anxiety disorder*** - This condition is characterized by a **preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness** despite having few or no somatic symptoms. - Individuals with illness anxiety disorder engage in **excessive health-related behaviors** (e.g., repeated checking) or maladaptive avoidance (e.g., avoiding doctor appointments). *Somatic symptom disorder* - Involves **distressing somatic symptoms** that result in significant disruption of daily life, with excessive thoughts or behaviors related to the symptoms. - The focus is on the **symptoms themselves**, rather than the fear of a specific undiagnosed illness. *Conversion disorder* - Features neurological symptoms (e.g., weakness, paralysis, seizures) that are **incompatible with recognized neurological or medical conditions**. - There is a **lack of voluntary control** over the symptoms, and they are not intentionally feigned. *Body dysmorphic disorder* - Characterized by a **preoccupation with perceived flaws** or defects in physical appearance that are not observable or appear slight to others. - This preoccupation leads to **repetitive behaviors** (e.g., mirror checking) or mental acts (e.g., comparing oneself to others).
Question 993: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of somatization disorder?
- A. Absence of pseudo neurological symptoms
- B. Absence of pain symptoms
- C. Rejection of the sick role (Correct Answer)
- D. Lack of sexual symptoms
Explanation: ***Rejection of the sick role*** - Patients with somatization disorder (now classified under **somatic symptom disorder** in DSM-5) characteristically **embrace the sick role**, not reject it - They actively seek medical attention, present with multiple chronic physical symptoms, express significant distress, and often become preoccupied with their perceived illnesses - This adoption of the sick role is a key behavioral pattern distinguishing somatization disorder from malingering or factitious disorder *Absence of pseudo-neurological symptoms* - This is incorrect because **pseudo-neurological (conversion) symptoms** are characteristic features of somatization disorder - Examples include paralysis, blindness, seizures, sensory loss, aphonia, and loss of coordination - These symptoms resemble neurological conditions but lack organic pathology *Absence of pain symptoms* - This is incorrect because **pain symptoms** are among the most common presentations in somatization disorder - Patients typically report pain in multiple sites: headaches, back pain, joint pain, chest pain, abdominal pain - Pain complaints are often one of the primary reasons these patients seek medical care *Lack of sexual symptoms* - This is incorrect because **sexual and reproductive symptoms** are frequently reported in somatization disorder - Examples include sexual indifference, erectile dysfunction, dyspareunia, irregular menses, excessive menstrual bleeding, and vomiting throughout pregnancy - These contribute to the widespread and varied somatic complaints characteristic of the disorder