After chronic use of steroids severe pain in right hip with immobility is due to
In elbow, osteochondritis usually involves
What is a common complication of joint tuberculosis?
In the context of bone metastasis, which of the following bones is least likely to be a site of metastasis?
What is the primary use of a knuckle bender splint?
Osteonecrosis is seen in all except
What is the primary reason for early stabilization of a femur shaft fracture?
What condition is primarily diagnosed using Von Rosen's view?
Tardy ulnar nerve palsy is specifically associated with which type of fracture?
Commonest ligament injured in ankle injury ?
NEET-PG 2012 - Orthopaedics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 11: After chronic use of steroids severe pain in right hip with immobility is due to
- A. Avascular necrosis (Correct Answer)
- B. Perthes disease
- C. Hip dislocation
- D. Osteoarthritis
Explanation: ***Avascular necrosis*** - Chronic **steroid use** is a major risk factor for avascular necrosis (AVN), particularly affecting the **femoral head** of the hip. - Reduced blood supply leads to bone death, resulting in severe pain and impaired mobility. *Perthes disease* - This is a condition of idiopathic **avascular necrosis of the femoral head** occurring in **children**, primarily between ages 4-10. - It is not associated with steroid use and typically presents in a different age group. *Hip dislocation* - Hip dislocation presents with **acute, severe pain** and an inability to bear weight or move the hip, often due to significant trauma. - While it causes immobility, it is an **acute traumatic event** rather than a chronic consequence of steroid use. *Osteoarthritis* - Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease characterized by **cartilage breakdown** and joint pain that typically **worsens with activity** and improves with rest. - While chronic hip pain can be due to osteoarthritis, its direct link to steroid use for severe pain and immobility as described is less prominent than AVN.
Question 12: In elbow, osteochondritis usually involves
- A. Olecranon
- B. Trochlea
- C. Radial head
- D. Capitulum (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Capitulum*** - The **capitulum** of the humerus is the most common site for **osteochondritis dissecans (OCD)** in the elbow, especially in throwing athletes and gymnasts. - This condition involves an avascular necrosis of the subchondral bone leading to a detachment of a cartilage fragment. *Olecranon* - The **olecranon** is part of the ulna and is more commonly affected by **stress fractures** or **bursitis**, not typically osteochondritis. - While it articulates with the trochlea, it does not bear the primary compressive forces that lead to osteochondritis in the same way the capitulum does. *Trochlea* - The **trochlea** of the humerus articulates with the trochlear notch of the ulna and is less frequently involved in primary osteochondritis compared to the capitulum. - Pathologies here are more likely related to **instability** or **fractures**. *Radial head* - The **radial head** articulates with the capitulum and is more prone to **fractures** or degenerative changes like **osteoarthritis**. - While it can be affected by **osteochondral lesions**, the capitulum is the classic site for elbow osteochondritis dissecans.
Question 13: What is a common complication of joint tuberculosis?
- A. Fibrous ankylosis (Correct Answer)
- B. Bony ankylosis
- C. Normal healing
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Fibrous ankylosis*** - Joint tuberculosis commonly leads to **fibrous ankylosis** due to chronic inflammation and destruction of articular cartilage, promoting the formation of fibrous tissue that limits joint movement. - This complication results from the body's attempt to heal the persistent inflammatory process, creating a stiff and immoveable joint. *Bony ankylosis* - While possible in severe, long-standing cases, **bony ankylosis** (fusion of bones) is less common in joint tuberculosis than fibrous ankylosis. - It typically occurs in diseases like **ankylosing spondylitis** or advanced rheumatoid arthritis, where new bone formation bridges joint spaces. *Normal healing* - **Normal healing** with full restoration of joint function is rare in untreated or late-diagnosed joint tuberculosis due to the destructive nature of the infection. - The disease often causes significant damage to cartilage and bone, precluding complete recovery without sequelae. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **fibrous ankylosis** is a well-recognized and frequent complication of joint tuberculosis. - The chronic inflammatory response and tissue destruction inherent to the disease make complications highly probable.
Question 14: In the context of bone metastasis, which of the following bones is least likely to be a site of metastasis?
- A. Femur
- B. Humerus
- C. Fibula (Correct Answer)
- D. Spine
Explanation: ***Fibula*** - The **fibula** is not commonly involved in **metastatic disease**, primarily due to its low blood supply compared to other bones. - While it can occasionally show metastatic lesions, it's **rare** when compared to more commonly affected sites. *Humerus* - The **humerus** can be affected by metastasis, often from lung or breast cancers [1], as it is one of the long bones involved in **hematogenous spread**. - Common presentations include **lytic or blastic lesions**, which indicate bone damage from metastatic processes. *Femur* - The **femur** is frequently involved in metastatic lesions, particularly in patients with malignancies like **prostate or breast cancer** [1]. - Symptoms may include **pain** and **pathologic fractures** due to the weakening of the bone structure from metastasis [1]. *Spine* - The **spine** is a common site for metastases, especially from cancers such as **lung, breast, and prostate** [1]. - Bone scans often reveal **vertebral body lesions**, leading to complications like **spinal cord compression** [1]. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Osteoarticular And Connective Tissue Disease, pp. 674-675.
Question 15: What is the primary use of a knuckle bender splint?
- A. Ulnar nerve palsy (Correct Answer)
- B. Radial nerve palsy
- C. Median nerve palsy
- D. Axillary nerve palsy
Explanation: ***Ulnar nerve palsy*** - A knuckle bender splint is primarily used to counteract the characteristic **claw hand deformity** seen in ulnar nerve palsy [1] by maintaining the **metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints** in flexion. - This splint helps improve function by preventing hyperextension of the MCP joints, which commonly occurs due to the unopposed action of the extensor muscles when the ulnar nerve is compromised. *Radial nerve palsy* - Radial nerve palsy typically results in **wrist drop** and an inability to extend the wrist and fingers, which is managed with wrist extension splints, not knuckle benders. - The primary goal of splinting in radial nerve palsy is to support the wrist in extension to facilitate grasping and carrying objects. *Median nerve palsy* - Median nerve palsy causes problems with thumb opposition and sensation in the first three and a half digits, often leading to an **ape hand deformity**. - Splints for median nerve palsy focus on maintaining the thumb in opposition, such as a **thumb spica splint**, which differs from a knuckle bender. *Axillary nerve palsy* - Axillary nerve palsy primarily affects the **deltoid muscle**, leading to weakness in shoulder abduction and external rotation. - Splinting for axillary nerve palsy typically involves shoulder immobilizers or abduction splints, which address shoulder joint positioning rather than hand function.
Question 16: Osteonecrosis is seen in all except
- A. Fracture neck femur
- B. Paget's disease (Correct Answer)
- C. Perthe's disease
- D. Sickle cell anemia
Explanation: ***Paget's disease*** - **Paget's disease of bone (osteitis deformans)** is a localized disorder of bone remodeling, characterized by excessive and disorganized bone formation, leading to enlarged, softened, and misshapen bones, but not directly causing osteonecrosis. - While complications like **pathological fractures** and **osteosarcoma** can occur, primary osteonecrosis is not a typical feature of Paget's disease itself. *Fracture neck femur* - **Fractures of the femoral neck** can disrupt the blood supply to the femoral head, particularly the medial circumflex femoral artery, leading to **avascular necrosis** (osteonecrosis) of the femoral head. - This is a well-known and common complication, especially in displaced fractures. *Sickle cell anemia* - **Sickle cell anemia** causes sickling of red blood cells, leading to **vaso-occlusion** and impaired blood flow to bones, resulting in **bone infarcts** (osteonecrosis). - This can affect various bones, including the femoral head, humeral head, and vertebrae. *Perthe's disease* - **Perthe's disease** (Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease) is a childhood condition characterized by **idiopathic osteonecrosis** of the femoral head. - It involves the collapse and subsequent re-ossification of the femoral epiphysis due to an interruption of its blood supply.
Question 17: What is the primary reason for early stabilization of a femur shaft fracture?
- A. To prevent significant blood loss.
- B. To reduce pain and discomfort.
- C. To facilitate quicker healing.
- D. To prevent fat embolism syndrome and systemic complications (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***To prevent fat embolism syndrome and systemic complications*** - Early stabilization of femur shaft fractures significantly **reduces the incidence of fat embolism syndrome (FES)**. Fat emboli released from the bone marrow can travel to the lungs and brain, causing severe respiratory distress and neurological deficits. - By stabilizing the fracture, the **release of fat globules is minimized**, thereby preventing FES and associated systemic complications such as acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) and adult respiratory distress syndrome (ADRS). *To prevent significant blood loss.* - While femur fractures can cause significant blood loss, the primary reason for early stabilization is not solely to prevent it but to reduce complications. **Blood loss is a direct consequence**, but FES poses a greater immediate threat to life. - Furthermore, **blood loss can often be managed initially by other means**, such as fluid resuscitation and direct pressure, while FES requires prompt reduction of fracture movement. *To reduce pain and discomfort.* - Reducing pain and discomfort is an important benefit of stabilization, but it is **not the primary life-saving reason** for early intervention. Analgesics and proper splinting can also address pain. - The focus on early stabilization goes beyond symptomatic relief to actively prevent **potentially fatal systemic complications**. *To facilitate quicker healing.* - While stability is crucial for proper healing, **early stabilization primarily addresses acute, life-threatening complications** rather than long-term healing rates. Optimal healing depends on many factors, including blood supply and infection control, not solely on initial stabilization. - **Quicker healing is a secondary benefit**; the immediate priority is to prevent acute morbidity and mortality associated with the fracture.
Question 18: What condition is primarily diagnosed using Von Rosen's view?
- A. Congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH) (Correct Answer)
- B. Perthes disease
- C. Congenital Talipes Equinovarus (CTEV)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH)*** - **Von Rosen's view** is a specialized X-ray projection used specifically to assess for **developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)**, also known as CDH, in infants. - This view helps visualize the relationship between the **femoral head** and the **acetabulum** by positioning the infant's hips in extension, abduction, and internal rotation. *Perthes disease* - **Perthes disease** is an avascular necrosis of the femoral head, typically diagnosed with standard **frog-leg lateral** and **AP pelvic X-rays**. - While it affects the hip, Von Rosen's view is not the primary diagnostic imaging for this condition, which usually presents later in childhood. *Congenital Talipes Equinovarus (CTEV)* - **CTEV**, or **clubfoot**, is a deformity of the foot and ankle, not the hip. - It is primarily diagnosed clinically and then confirmed with **AP and lateral X-rays of the foot** to assess bone alignment. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **Congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH)** is indeed primarily diagnosed using Von Rosen's view, among other methods.
Question 19: Tardy ulnar nerve palsy is specifically associated with which type of fracture?
- A. Lateral condyle fracture of the humerus (Correct Answer)
- B. Medial condyle fracture of the humerus
- C. Fracture of the humeral shaft
- D. Fracture of the radial shaft
Explanation: ***Lateral condyle fracture of the humerus*** - This fracture, especially in children, can lead to **cubitus valgus deformity** as a long-term complication if it heals incorrectly. - The resulting **valgus angulation** at the elbow abnormally stretches the ulnar nerve behind the medial epicondyle, causing **tardy ulnar nerve palsy** years after the initial injury. *Medial condyle fracture of the humerus* - While close to the ulnar nerve, medial condyle fractures are more likely to cause **immediate nerve damage** due to direct impingement, rather than delayed or "tardy" palsy from chronic stretching. - Complications typically involve varus deformity, which does not commonly stretch the ulnar nerve in the same manner as valgus. *Fracture of the humeral shaft* - This type of fracture is more commonly associated with **radial nerve injury** (e.g., wrist drop), especially in fractures of the mid-shaft. - It does not typically lead to long-term deformities at the elbow that would cause **delayed ulnar nerve compression**. *Fracture of the radial shaft* - Radial shaft fractures (e.g., Monteggia, Galeazzi) primarily affect the **radial nerve** or the **posterior interosseous nerve**. - They do not directly involve the elbow joint in a manner that would cause **tardy ulnar nerve palsy**.
Question 20: Commonest ligament injured in ankle injury ?
- A. Anterior talofibular ligament (Correct Answer)
- B. Calcaneofibular ligament
- C. Posterior talofibular ligament
- D. Spring ligament
Explanation: ***Anterior talofibular ligament*** - The **anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL)** is the **most frequently injured ligament** in ankle sprains because it is the weakest and most commonly stretched during **inversion injuries**. - Its position makes it vulnerable during movements where the foot rolls inward, a common mechanism for ankle sprains. *Calcaneofibular ligament* - The **calcaneofibular ligament (CFL)** is stronger than the ATFL and is typically injured with more severe inversion forces, often in conjunction with ATFL rupture. - While it plays a crucial role in ankle stability, it is not the *most* commonly injured ligament. *Posterior talofibular ligament* - The **posterior talofibular ligament (PTFL)** is the strongest of the lateral ankle ligaments and is rarely injured in isolated ankle sprains. - Its injury usually signifies a **severe ankle sprain** with significant talar displacement or dislocation. *Spring ligament* - The **spring ligament**, also known as the **plantar calcaneonavicular ligament**, is located on the medial side of the foot and supports the medial longitudinal arch. - It is not directly involved in typical ankle sprains, which primarily affect the lateral collateral ligaments.