What is the most common complication of pars planitis?
In which condition is the swinging light test positive?
Most common malignant tumour of eyelid is ?
Bilateral ptosis is seen in all except which of the following?
Which of the following statements about corneal dystrophy is true?
Recurrent anterior uveitis with increased intraocular tension is seen in which of the following conditions?
Jack in box scotoma is seen after correction of Aphakia by?
Shaffer's sign is seen in ?
What is the most common cause of vitreous hemorrhage in diabetic retinopathy?
The reduced effect of low astigmatism in dim light is primarily due to:
NEET-PG 2012 - Ophthalmology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 11: What is the most common complication of pars planitis?
- A. Cataract (clouding of the lens) (Correct Answer)
- B. Retinal detachment (separation of retina)
- C. Cystoid macular edema (swelling of central retina)
- D. Glaucoma (increased intraocular pressure)
Explanation: **Cataract (clouding of the lens)** - **Cataract formation** is the most common ocular complication in patients with pars planitis, often due to chronic inflammation or steroid use. - The inflammation can disrupt lens metabolism, leading to **opacification** over time. *Retinal detachment (separation of retina)* - While possible, **retinal detachment** is a less common complication of pars planitis compared to cataract formation. - It can occur in severe cases, often due to vitreous traction on fragile peripheral retina or tears associated with **snowbanking**. *Cystoid macular edema (swelling of central retina)* - **Cystoid macular edema (CME)** is a significant cause of vision loss in pars planitis but is not the most frequent complication overall. - It results from the inflammatory compromise of the blood-retinal barrier, leading to fluid accumulation in the **macula**. *Glaucoma (increased intraocular pressure)* - **Glaucoma** can occur in pars planitis, often secondary to chronic inflammation affecting the **trabecular meshwork** or prolonged steroid use. - However, it is less common than cataracts and CME as a primary complication.
Question 12: In which condition is the swinging light test positive?
- A. Conjunctivitis
- B. Glaucoma
- C. Keratoconus
- D. Optic neuritis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Optic neuritis*** - The swinging light test (also known as the **Marcus Gunn pupil** or relative afferent pupillary defect, RAPD) is positive when there is a significant **asymmetry in the afferent visual pathway** between the two eyes. - In optic neuritis, the **optic nerve** is inflamed and demyelinated, impairing the transmission of light signals to the brain, which leads to a paradoxical pupillary dilation when the light is swung from the unaffected to the affected eye. *Conjunctivitis* - This is an **inflammation of the conjunctiva**, the membrane lining the eyelid and sclera, which primarily affects the ocular surface. - It does not involve the optic nerve or afferent pupillary pathways, so the swinging light test would be **negative**. *Glaucoma* - Glaucoma is a condition characterized by **progressive optic nerve damage**, often associated with elevated intraocular pressure, leading to peripheral vision loss. - While it causes optic neuropathy, a positive swinging light test is typically seen only in **severe, asymmetric cases** and is not its primary diagnostic feature. *Keratoconus* - This is a non-inflammatory eye condition in which the normally round dome-shaped cornea **thins and bulges outward into a cone-like shape**. - It affects the **cornea's shape and vision quality**, but not the optic nerve or the afferent pupillary reflex pathway, thus the swinging light test would be negative.
Question 13: Most common malignant tumour of eyelid is ?
- A. Basal cell carcinoma (Correct Answer)
- B. Malignant melanoma
- C. Squamous cell carcinoma
- D. Sebaceous gland carcinoma
Explanation: ***Basal cell carcinoma*** - **Basal cell carcinoma (BCC)** accounts for approximately 85-95% of all eyelid malignancies, making it the most common type. - It often presents as a **pearly nodule** with telangiectatic vessels, frequently affecting the lower eyelid. *Squamous cell carcinoma* - **Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)** is the second most common eyelid malignancy, but it is significantly less frequent (5-10%) than BCC. - SCC has a **higher metastatic potential** compared to BCC. *Malignant melanoma* - **Malignant melanoma** is a rare but highly aggressive eyelid tumor, accounting for less than 1% of all eyelid malignancies. - It is characterized by its **pigmented appearance** and rapid growth pattern. *Sebaceous gland carcinoma* - **Sebaceous gland carcinoma** is a relatively uncommon, but aggressive, tumor of the eyelid, comprising about 1-5% of cases. - It often mimics benign lesions like a **chalazion** or chronic blepharitis, leading to delayed diagnosis.
Question 14: Bilateral ptosis is seen in all except which of the following?
- A. Trauma
- B. Hyperthyroidism (Graves' disease) (Correct Answer)
- C. Congenital
- D. Myotonic dystrophy
Explanation: ***Hyperthyroidism (Graves' disease)*** - **Hyperthyroidism** causes eyelid retraction, leading to a **stare** or **lid lag**, rather than **ptosis**. - **Graves' ophthalmopathy** can cause proptosis (bulging eyes) and conjunctival injection, but does not typically manifest as ptosis. *Congenital* - **Congenital ptosis** is often present at birth due to improper development of the **levator palpebrae superioris muscle**. - It can be **bilateral** and is usually isolated, without other systemic symptoms. *Trauma* - **Traumatic ptosis** can occur if the **levator muscle**, **aponeurosis**, or **third cranial nerve** is damaged. - This can be **bilateral** depending on the nature and extent of the head trauma. *Myotonic dystrophy* - **Myotonic dystrophy** is a **hereditary muscle disorder** characterized by progressive muscle weakness. - **Bilateral ptosis** is a very common early sign of **myotonic dystrophy**, often accompanied by **facial weakness** and **myotonia**.
Question 15: Which of the following statements about corneal dystrophy is true?
- A. It involves neovascularization.
- B. It is caused by inflammation.
- C. It is usually unilateral.
- D. It is typically bilateral. (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***It is typically bilateral.*** - **Corneal dystrophies** are inherited genetic disorders that usually affect both eyes symmetrically. - This bilateral presentation is a key characteristic distinguishing them from other corneal conditions. *It is caused by inflammation.* - **Corneal dystrophies** are primarily genetic and degenerative, not inflammatory. - While inflammation can cause corneal damage (e.g., keratitis), it is not the underlying cause of dystrophy. *It involves neovascularization.* - **Neovascularization** (growth of new blood vessels) is typically a response to chronic inflammation, hypoxia, or infection in the cornea. - It is generally not a feature of primary corneal dystrophies, which are characterized by abnormal deposits or structural changes within the corneal layers. *It is usually unilateral.* - As inherited genetic conditions, **corneal dystrophies** almost always affect both eyes. - Unilateral involvement would suggest a different etiology, such as trauma, infection, or a localized acquired condition.
Question 16: Recurrent anterior uveitis with increased intraocular tension is seen in which of the following conditions?
- A. Posner-Schlossman syndrome (Correct Answer)
- B. Foster-Kennedy syndrome
- C. Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada syndrome
- D. Fuchs heterochromic iridocyclitis
Explanation: ***Posner-Schlossman syndrome*** - Characterized by **recurrent, unilateral, non-granulomatous anterior uveitis** associated with markedly **elevated intraocular pressure (IOP)**. - The condition is also known as **glaucomatocyclitic crisis**, highlighting the episodic inflammation and glaucoma. - Key features include **acute attacks** lasting hours to weeks with **dramatic IOP elevation** (often >40 mmHg). *Foster-Kennedy syndrome* - This syndrome is defined by ipsilateral **optic atrophy**, contralateral **papilledema**, and often **anosmia**, typically due to a frontal lobe tumor. - It does not involve anterior uveitis or primary elevated intraocular tension. - This is a neuro-ophthalmologic syndrome, not an inflammatory ocular condition. *Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada syndrome* - An autoimmune disorder affecting pigmented tissues, leading to **bilateral granulomatous panuveitis**, often with hearing loss, vitiligo, poliosis, and neurological symptoms. - While it involves uveitis, it is typically **bilateral and panuveitis**, not recurrent unilateral anterior uveitis. - IOP may be elevated but not the defining feature with dramatic episodic rises. *Fuchs heterochromic iridocyclitis* - A chronic, **unilateral, low-grade anterior uveitis** with characteristic iris heterochromia. - May have mild IOP elevation but **not recurrent episodic attacks** with marked pressure spikes. - Inflammation is typically **quiet and chronic** rather than acute and recurrent.
Question 17: Jack in box scotoma is seen after correction of Aphakia by?
- A. IOL
- B. Spectacles (Correct Answer)
- C. Contact lens
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Spectacles*** - **Jack-in-the-box scotoma** describes a visual phenomenon where objects appear to jump into and out of the field of vision. This occurs due to the **peripheral scotoma** and **ring scotoma** created by high-plus aphakic spectacle lenses. - Aphakic spectacles cause significant **magnification of the central visual field** (about 25-30%) and a corresponding minification/displacement of the peripheral field, leading to areas where objects are transiently obscured or reappear. *IOL* - An **intraocular lens (IOL)** replaces the natural lens within the eye, providing a much more stable and centered optical correction. - IOLs generally do not cause significant magnification changes or the peripheral scotoma associated with aphakic spectacles. *Contact lens* - **Contact lenses** sit directly on the cornea, offering a visual correction that is much closer to the nodal point of the eye than spectacles. - This placement results in less peripheral distortion and magnification compared to spectacles, making jack-in-the-box scotoma unlikely. *None of the options* - As **aphakic spectacles** are known to cause jack-in-the-box scotoma, this option is incorrect.
Question 18: Shaffer's sign is seen in ?
- A. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
- B. Diabetic retinopathy
- C. Age-related macular degeneration
- D. Retinal detachment (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Retinal detachment*** - **Shaffer's sign** refers to the presence of **pigment cells** (tobacco dust) in the **anterior vitreous**, indicating a retinal break or detachment. - This sign is due to the release of retinal pigment epithelium cells into the vitreous following a tear in the retina. *Acute angle-closure glaucoma* - This condition is characterized by a **sudden increase in intraocular pressure** due to blocked fluid outflow, causing pain, redness, and blurred vision. - It does not involve pigment cells in the vitreous, but rather changes in the **anterior chamber angle**. *Diabetic retinopathy* - This is a microvascular complication of diabetes, leading to damage to the blood vessels in the retina, causing **hemorrhages**, **exudates**, and **neovascularization**. - It does not typically present with free pigment in the vitreous as a primary diagnostic sign. *Age-related macular degeneration* - This condition affects the **macula**, often causing distorted vision and central vision loss, and is characterized by drusen and atrophy. - While it can involve retinal changes, it does not classically present with pigment cells in the vitreous as a diagnostic indicator.
Question 19: What is the most common cause of vitreous hemorrhage in diabetic retinopathy?
- A. Non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy
- B. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy (Correct Answer)
- C. Severe non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy
- D. Diabetic macular edema
Explanation: ***Proliferative diabetic retinopathy*** - **Neovascularization** is the hallmark of proliferative diabetic retinopathy (PDR), where new, fragile blood vessels grow on the surface of the retina and optic disc. - These delicate vessels can easily rupture and bleed into the vitreous humor, leading to a **vitreous hemorrhage**. *Non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy* - This stage is characterized by **microaneurysms**, hemorrhages, and cotton wool spots, but typically lacks significant neovascularization. - While it involves retinal vascular damage, the absence of **newly formed, fragile vessels** makes vitreous hemorrhage less common. *Severe non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy* - This stage shows extensive microvascular abnormalities, including numerous hemorrhages and venular beading, but generally **still no new vessel formation**. - Without the presence of **fragile neovascular membranes**, the risk of significant vitreous hemorrhage is lower compared to PDR. *Diabetic macular edema* - This condition involves **fluid leakage** from damaged retinal vessels into the macula, causing vision loss. - While it's a common complication of diabetes, it primarily causes **macular swelling** and does not directly lead to vitreous hemorrhage.
Question 20: The reduced effect of low astigmatism in dim light is primarily due to:
- A. Pupil dilatation
- B. Pupil constriction (Correct Answer)
- C. Increased curvature of lens
- D. Decreased curvature of lens
Explanation: ***Pupil constriction*** - In dim light conditions, patients with low astigmatism may experience **reduced symptoms** due to the **pinhole effect** of pupil constriction when they squint or strain to see better. - **Pupil constriction** limits light entry to the central optical zone, reducing the effect of irregular corneal curvature by creating a smaller aperture that acts like a **stenopic slit**. - This **pinhole effect** improves depth of focus and reduces blur from astigmatism by eliminating peripheral aberrant rays. - When viewing in dim light, patients naturally squint to improve clarity, which mimics pupil constriction and reduces astigmatic blur. *Pupil dilatation* - **Pupil dilatation** in dim light would actually *increase* astigmatic symptoms, not reduce them. - A larger pupil allows more peripheral rays to enter the eye, which pass through areas of the lens and cornea with greater refractive error. - This increases the blur circle and worsens the optical quality in uncorrected astigmatism. *Increased curvature of lens* - **Increased lens curvature** (accommodation) increases refractive power but does not correct the unequal curvature of different meridians that defines astigmatism. - This would not specifically reduce astigmatic blur in dim light conditions. *Decreased curvature of lens* - **Decreased lens curvature** reduces refractive power and is associated with relaxed accommodation. - This does not address the fundamental issue of unequal meridional refraction in astigmatism.