NEET-PG 2012 — Microbiology
72 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations
Which of the following statements about Streptococcus is false?
Which of the following statements is true regarding Wuchereria bancrofti?
From which strain of virus is the rabies vaccine prepared?
What is the primary virulence factor of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
What is the most common bacterial cause of multiple sinus tracts resulting from an infection of the great toe?
Which of the following is the most potent stimulator of Naive T-cells?
Which of the following Trichophyton species is known to be zoophilic?
Which of the following statements is false regarding yersiniosis?
Which virus is known for its brick-shaped morphology?
Rhabditiform larvae are seen in which of the following?
NEET-PG 2012 - Microbiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Which of the following statements about Streptococcus is false?
- A. Group A Streptococcus is catalase positive (Correct Answer)
- B. Group B causes neonatal meningitis
- C. Group B lives in female genital tract
- D. Classification by Lancefield based on carbohydrate antigen
Explanation: ***Group A Streptococcus is catalase positive*** - This statement is false because all species of **Streptococcus**, including Group A Streptococcus (GAS), are **catalase-negative**. - The absence of the **catalase enzyme** is a key differentiating feature between streptococci and staphylococci, which are catalase-positive. *Group B causes neonatal meningitis* - **Group B Streptococcus (GBS)**, or *Streptococcus agalactiae*, is a well-known cause of **neonatal meningitis** and sepsis. - Infants can acquire GBS during passage through the birth canal from a colonized mother, leading to severe infections. *Group B lives in female genital tract* - GBS is a common commensal organism found in the **lower gastrointestinal** and **female genital tracts** of up to 30% of healthy women. - Its presence in the female genital tract poses a risk for transmission to neonates during childbirth. *Classification by Lancefield based on carbohydrate antigen* - The **Lancefield grouping system** classifies streptococci based on the presence of specific **carbohydrate antigens** in their cell walls. - This serological classification, developed by Rebecca Lancefield, divides streptococci into groups A, B, C, D, F, and G, which helps in identifying different species and their associated pathologies.
Question 2: Which of the following statements is true regarding Wuchereria bancrofti?
- A. Unsheathed
- B. Tail tip free from nuclei (Correct Answer)
- C. Non-periodic
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Tail tip free from nuclei*** - The **microfilariae** of *Wuchereria bancrofti* are characterized by a **clean tail tip**, meaning there are no nuclei extending into the very end of the tail. - This feature is crucial for differentiating it from other microfilariae like *Brugia malayi*, which has two distinct nuclei in its tail tip. *Unsheathed* - *Wuchereria bancrofti* microfilariae are **sheathed**, meaning they retain an egg envelope as a loose covering. - An unsheathed microfilaria, like that of *Onchocerca volvulus*, lacks this outer covering. *Non-periodic* - *Wuchereria bancrofti* exhibits **nocturnal periodicity**, meaning its microfilariae are most abundant in the peripheral blood during the night. - Non-periodic microfilariae are found in the blood at any time of day, as seen with *Loa loa*. *None of the options* - This statement is incorrect because "Tail tip free from nuclei" is a true characteristic of *Wuchereria bancrofti* microfilariae.
Question 3: From which strain of virus is the rabies vaccine prepared?
- A. Street virus
- B. Fixed Virus (Correct Answer)
- C. Wild virus
- D. Pasteur virus
Explanation: ***Fixed Virus*** - The rabies vaccine is prepared from **fixed virus strains**, which are **attenuated** forms of the rabies virus that have lost their pathogenicity for humans through serial passages in animals or cell cultures. - This attenuation allows the virus to induce an immune response without causing disease, making it safe and effective for vaccination. - Examples include **Pitman-Moore strain**, **Flury strain (HEP/LEP)**, and **SAD strain**. *Street virus* - The **street virus** is the term used for the **wild-type rabies virus** as it occurs naturally in infected animals and causes clinical rabies disease. - Due to its high pathogenicity and ability to cause lethal infection, the street virus is **not used** for vaccine production. *Wild virus* - **Wild virus** is another term referring to the naturally occurring, **virulent rabies virus** found in infected animals. - Like the street virus, it is too pathogenic to be used directly in vaccine preparation. *Pasteur virus* - While **Louis Pasteur** pioneered rabies vaccination, "Pasteur virus" is not a standard terminology for vaccine strains. - The term **"fixed virus"** specifically denotes laboratory-adapted, attenuated strains regardless of their origin.
Question 4: What is the primary virulence factor of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
- A. All of the above are incorrect
- B. Pili (fimbriae) (Correct Answer)
- C. Endotoxin (lipooligosaccharide)
- D. Exotoxin
Explanation: ***Pili (fimbriae)*** - **Pili are the PRIMARY virulence factor** of *Neisseria gonorrhoeae*, essential for **initial attachment and colonization** of urogenital mucosa - Enable bacteria to **adhere to non-ciliated epithelial cells**, resisting mechanical clearance by urination and secretions - Undergo **antigenic variation** to evade host immune responses - Without pili, *N. gonorrhoeae* cannot establish infection *Endotoxin (lipooligosaccharide)* - *N. gonorrhoeae* possesses **LOS (lipooligosaccharide)** which causes inflammation and tissue damage - While important for pathogenesis, it is a **secondary virulence factor** - LOS contributes to symptoms but cannot cause infection without prior colonization via pili *Exotoxin* - *N. gonorrhoeae* does **not produce significant exotoxins** - Pathogenicity is mediated through **adherence factors (pili), LOS, and surface proteins** rather than secreted protein toxins - This is not a mechanism of gonococcal virulence *All of the above are incorrect* - This statement is false as **pili (fimbriae)** are definitively the primary virulence factor for *N. gonorrhoeae*
Question 5: What is the most common bacterial cause of multiple sinus tracts resulting from an infection of the great toe?
- A. Tuberculosis
- B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
- C. Staphylococcus aureus
- D. Actinomyces (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Actinomyces*** - **Actinomycosis** is known for causing **chronic suppurative infections** with **multiple draining sinus tracts** and characteristic **sulfur granules**. - The causative organism is **Actinomyces israelii**, an anaerobic, gram-positive, filamentous bacterium. - While rare, it can affect bones, leading to **osteomyelitis**, especially in the feet, presenting with these multifocal sinus tracts. *Tuberculosis* - **Tuberculosis of bone** is typically a **monoarticular affection**, often affecting larger joints, and does not commonly present with multiple draining sinus tracts like actinomycosis. - It is more common in the spine (**Pott's disease**) and large weight-bearing joints, rather than solely the great toe with multiple sinuses. *Staphylococcus aureus* - **Staphylococcus aureus** is the most common cause of **acute osteomyelitis** and can lead to draining sinuses. - However, it typically causes **single or localized sinus tracts** rather than the extensive, multiple sinus formation associated with actinomycosis. *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* - **Pseudomonas aeruginosa** is often associated with **osteomyelitis following puncture wounds** through footwear. - While it can cause chronic infections, it is not primarily known for forming the characteristic **multiple, long-standing sinus tracts** seen with Actinomyces.
Question 6: Which of the following is the most potent stimulator of Naive T-cells?
- A. Macrophages
- B. B-cell
- C. Mature dendritic cells (Correct Answer)
- D. Follicular dendritic cells
Explanation: ***Mature dendritic cells*** - **Mature dendritic cells** are the most potent professional antigen-presenting cells (APCs) for activating **naive T cells** due to their efficient antigen processing, presentation abilities, and high expression of costimulatory molecules (e.g., CD80, CD86) and MHC-peptide complexes. - Activated by pathogens or inflammatory signals, they migrate to secondary lymphoid organs where they initiate primary immune responses by presenting antigens to and activating naive T cells. *Follicular dendritic cells* - **Follicular dendritic cells** primarily present intact antigens to **B cells** in germinal centers of secondary lymphoid organs, playing a crucial role in B cell maturation, selection, and antibody production. - They lack MHC class II molecules and thus cannot directly present antigens to naive T cells. *Macrophages* - While **macrophages** are professional APCs, they are generally less efficient than mature dendritic cells at activating **naive T cells**, especially in the initiation of primary immune responses. - They are more involved in presenting antigens to already activated T cells and clearing pathogens, often acting as secondary APCs. *B-cell* - **B cells** can act as APCs, but they are generally less efficient than **dendritic cells** in activating **naive T cells**, especially for the primary immune response. - Their primary role in antigen presentation is to present processed antigens to **helper T cells** to receive costimulation for their own activation and differentiation into plasma cells, often after being activated themselves.
Question 7: Which of the following Trichophyton species is known to be zoophilic?
- A. T. tonsurans
- B. T. violaceum
- C. T. schoenleinii
- D. T. mentagrophytes (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***T. mentagrophytes*** - This species is well-known for being **zoophilic**, meaning it primarily infects animals but can be transmitted to humans. - It is a common cause of **tinea corporis** (ringworm of the body), **tinea pedis** (athlete's foot), and **tinea barbae**, often contracted from contact with infected pets or farm animals. *T. tonsurans* - This is an **anthropophilic** species, meaning it primarily infects humans. - It is a leading cause of **tinea capitis** (ringworm of the scalp) in the United States, particularly among children, and typically presents with a "black dot" appearance. *T. violaceum* - This is another **anthropophilic** species, endemic in various parts of the world, especially the Middle East and Africa. - It also causes **tinea capitis** and can lead to a characteristic "gray patch" type of infection. *T. schoenleinii* - This is an **anthropophilic** species historically associated with **favus**, a severe form of tinea capitis. - Favus is characterized by the formation of sulfur-yellow, cup-shaped crusts called **scutula** and can lead to permanent hair loss and scarring.
Question 8: Which of the following statements is false regarding yersiniosis?
- A. Gram-negative bacillus
- B. Caused by Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
- C. Caused by Yersinia pestis (Correct Answer)
- D. Caused by Yersinia enterocolitica
Explanation: ***Caused by Yersinia pestis*** - **Yersinia pestis** is the causative agent of **plague**, not typical yersiniosis affecting the gastrointestinal tract. - Yersiniosis generally refers to infections caused by other *Yersinia* species like *Y. enterocolitica* and *Y. pseudotuberculosis*. *Gram-negative bacillus* - *Yersinia* species, including *Y. enterocolitica* and *Y. pseudotuberculosis*, are indeed **Gram-negative bacilli**. - This characteristic is fundamental to their classification and bacterial structure. *Caused by Yersinia pseudotuberculosis* - **Yersinia pseudotuberculosis** is a recognized cause of **yersiniosis**, particularly affecting children. - It can cause symptoms such as **abdominal pain** and **mesenteric lymphadenitis**, mimicking appendicitis. *Caused by Yersinia enterocolitica* - **Yersinia enterocolitica** is the **most common cause of yersiniosis** in humans. - It is responsible for a range of symptoms including **gastroenteritis**, **acute enteritis**, and **mesenteric lymphadenitis**.
Question 9: Which virus is known for its brick-shaped morphology?
- A. Chickenpox
- B. Smallpox (Correct Answer)
- C. CMV
- D. EBV
Explanation: ***Smallpox*** - The **variola virus**, responsible for smallpox, is a type of **poxvirus** which characteristically exhibits a **brick-shaped** or ovoid morphology. - This distinctive shape is due to its **large, complex virion structure** containing a dumbbell-shaped core. *Chickenpox* - Chickenpox is caused by the **varicella-zoster virus (VZV)**, which is a member of the **herpesviridae family**. - Herpesviruses are typically **spherical** with an icosahedral capsid. *CMV* - **Cytomegalovirus (CMV)** is another member of the **herpesviridae family**, sharing the characteristic **spherical shape** with an icosahedral capsid. - Its morphology is not brick-shaped. *EBV* - **Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)** is also a **herpesvirus** and thus possesses a **spherical, icosahedral capsid morphology**. - Its structure is distinct from the brick-shaped poxviruses.
Question 10: Rhabditiform larvae are seen in which of the following?
- A. Taenia solium
- B. Strongyloides stercoralis (Correct Answer)
- C. Diphyllobothrium latum
- D. Trichinella spiralis
Explanation: ***Strongyloides stercoralis*** - *Strongyloides stercoralis* is unique among intestinal nematodes in that it can produce **rhabditiform larvae** in the stool. These larvae can then mature into infective **filariform larvae** either in the soil or within the host. - The presence of **rhabditiform larvae in fresh stool samples** is a key diagnostic feature differentiating *Strongyloides* from other parasitic infections that typically shed eggs. *Taenia solium* - *Taenia solium* (pork tapeworm) is transmitted by **ingesting undercooked pork** containing cysticerci. - The parasite is diagnosed by finding **eggs or proglottids in stool**, not rhabditiform larvae. *Diphyllobothrium latum* - *Diphyllobothrium latum* (fish tapeworm) infects humans upon consumption of **undercooked or raw freshwater fish**. - Diagnosis is made by identifying characteristic **operculated eggs in stool samples**, which do not contain rhabditiform larvae. *Trichinella spiralis* - *Trichinella spiralis* causes trichinosis, usually acquired by eating **undercooked meat infected with encysted larvae**. - This parasite is typically diagnosed by **muscle biopsy** showing encysted larvae or serological tests, as it does not produce rhabditiform larvae in stool.