INI-CET 2024 — Anesthesiology
3 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations
What is the medical procedure that involves the insertion of a tube directly into the trachea to secure the airway and ensure adequate ventilation?
Which of the following is a second-generation laryngeal mask airway (LMA)?
Patient was planned for surgery under GA, in the induction phase rocuronium was given 85mg but the anesthetist did not succeed in intubating. Which could be the best reversal agent used?
INI-CET 2024 - Anesthesiology INI-CET Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: What is the medical procedure that involves the insertion of a tube directly into the trachea to secure the airway and ensure adequate ventilation?
- A. Oral suction
- B. Oropharyngeal suction
- C. Endotracheal tube insertion (Correct Answer)
- D. Nasogastric tube insertion
Explanation: ### **Explanation** The correct answer is **Endotracheal tube (ETT) insertion**, also known as **intubation**. #### **1. Why Endotracheal Tube Insertion is Correct** The primary goal of airway management is to maintain a patent airway and provide mechanical ventilation. **Endotracheal intubation** involves passing a tube through the vocal cords directly into the **trachea**. This is considered the "gold standard" for securing the airway because: * It provides a **definitive airway**. * It protects the lungs from **aspiration** (via the inflatable cuff). * It allows for precise delivery of oxygen and anesthetic gases. #### **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options** * **Oral and Oropharyngeal Suction (A & B):** These are supportive procedures used to clear secretions, blood, or vomit from the mouth and pharynx. They do not involve entering the trachea or providing a conduit for ventilation. * **Nasogastric Tube Insertion (D):** This involves passing a tube through the nose into the **stomach**. It is used for gastric decompression or enteral feeding, not for respiratory management. #### **3. High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG / INI-CET** * **Definition of a Definitive Airway:** A tube present in the **trachea** with the **cuff inflated** and connected to an oxygen-enriched ventilation source. * **Confirmation:** The most reliable clinical method to confirm ETT placement is **End-tidal CO₂ (Capnography)**. On physical exam, bilateral breath sounds and absence of gastric gurgling are essential. * **Goldman’s Rule:** The distance from the incisors to the mid-trachea is approximately **21 cm in females** and **23 cm in males**. * **Murphy’s Eye:** The small hole at the distal end of the ETT that prevents complete obstruction if the main tip is blocked by the tracheal wall.
Question 2: Which of the following is a second-generation laryngeal mask airway (LMA)?
- A. Ambu
- B. Classic LMA
- C. LMA Flexible
- D. LMA Proseal (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***LMA Proseal*** - The **LMA Proseal** is classified as a second-generation LMA because it incorporates features like a **gastric access channel** (drain tube) to allow for suctioning of gastric contents and a **higher seal pressure** around the glottis. - These advancements improve **airway protection** and ventilation efficacy compared to first-generation devices. *Ambu* - The term "Ambu" primarily refers to the company that manufactures various medical devices, including LMAs, but does not specify a particular LMA model that is exclusively second-generation. - Ambu has produced both first and second-generation supraglottic airway devices. *Classic LMA* - The **Classic LMA** is considered a **first-generation** laryngeal mask airway. - It lacks features such as a gastric access channel and typically provides a lower seal pressure, offering less protection against aspiration. *LMA Flexible* - The **LMA Flexible** is also a **first-generation** laryngeal mask airway, distinguished by its wire-reinforced, flexible tube allowing for surgical access to the head and neck. - While it has a specialized design, it does not possess the inherent safety features (e.g., gastric access) that define second-generation devices.
Question 3: Patient was planned for surgery under GA, in the induction phase rocuronium was given 85mg but the anesthetist did not succeed in intubating. Which could be the best reversal agent used?
- A. Neostigmine (non-specific acetylcholinesterase inhibitor)
- B. Glycopyrrolate (anticholinergic agent)
- C. Edrophonium (non-specific acetylcholinesterase inhibitor)
- D. Sugammadex (specific reversal agent for rocuronium) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Sugammadex (specific reversal agent for rocuronium)*** - **Sugammadex** is a modified gamma-cyclodextrin that forms a tight, water-soluble complex with **rocuronium**, effectively encapsulating and inactivating it. - It is highly effective for rapid reversal of **rocuronium**-induced neuromuscular blockade, especially in situations where immediate reversal is critical, such as a "cannot intubate, cannot ventilate" scenario. *Neostigmine (non-specific acetylcholinesterase inhibitor)* - **Neostigmine** acts by inhibiting **acetylcholinesterase**, increasing the amount of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction to overcome the competitive block. - Its reversal effect is slower and less reliable than sugammadex, especially after a large dose of rocuronium or deep blockade. *Glycopyrrolate (anticholinergic agent)* - **Glycopyrrolate** is an **anticholinergic** agent used to counteract the muscarinic side effects (e.g., bradycardia, salivation) of **acetylcholinesterase inhibitors** like neostigmine, but it has no direct reversal effect on neuromuscular blockade. - It is typically co-administered with neostigmine, not used as a standalone reversal agent for **rocuronium**. *Edrophonium (non-specific acetylcholinesterase inhibitor)* - **Edrophonium** is a short-acting **acetylcholinesterase inhibitor**, similar to neostigmine but with a more rapid onset and shorter duration of action. - It is less potent and effective than neostigmine for reversing moderate to deep neuromuscular blockade and would not be the best choice after a significant dose of **rocuronium**.