FMGE 2023 - Surgery Practice Questions

Q: A homosexual man complains of painful defecation and mass protruding from the anal canal. Biopsy reveals squamous cell carcinoma of anus. Correct management for this patient is

Combined chemoradiation. ***Combined chemoradiation***- **Combined chemoradiation (Nigro protocol)** is the standard of care and preferred, organ-preserving primary treatment for most stages of squamous cell carcinoma of the anus.- This curative regimen typically involves sequential or concurrent use of **5-Fluorouracil**, **Mitomycin C** (or Cisplatin), and focused external beam radiation therapy, resulting in high rates of complete remission.*Chemotherapy*- Chemotherapy alone is insufficient as a curative primary modality for localized anal carcinoma and is inferior to combined treatment.- Systemic chemotherapy is primarily reserved for the management of **metastatic** disease or palliation in advanced, unresectable cases.*Abdominoperineal repair*- **Abdominoperineal resection (APR)**, which creates a permanent colostomy, is primarily reserved as a highly morbid **salvage operation** for locoregional failure following initial chemoradiation.- Primary APR is rarely performed because combined chemoradiation offers similar long-term survival rates with sphincter preservation.*Wide local excision*- **Wide local excision (WLE)** is only appropriate for very small (T1, <2cm), well-differentiated tumors located at the anal margin (perianal skin), which are much less common.- A bulky, protruding mass usually indicates a deeper primary tumor or involvement of the anal canal, requiring definitive **chemoradiation** rather than surgery.

Q: A 25-year-old patient presents to the surgical OPD with a painless left inguinal reducible mass. On examination cough impulse is positive. After further investigations, the patient is diagnosed with an inguinal hernia. What is the surgical management of this patient?

b.Hernioplasty. ***Hernioplasty***- **Hernioplasty**, which utilizes a prosthetic mesh (e.g., **Lichtenstein technique**), is the universally accepted standard for repairing adult inguinal hernias to achieve a tension-free repair.- This method provides a **tension-free repair** of the posterior inguinal wall, leading to significantly lower recurrence rates compared to traditional suture repairs.*Herniotomy*- **Herniotomy** involves only the excision of the hernia sac and is typically reserved for **indirect inguinal hernias in children**, where the muscle wall is robust.- In an adult, failing to repair the inherent weakness of the **inguinal canal floor** after sac removal results in an unacceptably high risk of hernia recurrence.*Wait and watch*- This approach is mainly reserved for **elderly or comorbid patients** with minimally symptomatic or asymptomatic reducible hernias who are considered high risk for surgery.- For a fit 25-year-old, surgery is recommended to prevent future potentially life-threatening complications like **strangulation** or chronic pain.*Emergency laparotomy*- A full **laparotomy** is an extensive abdominal incision utilized for exploring the acute abdomen or managing complicated intra-abdominal sepsis.- This procedure is unnecessary as the hernia is described as **reducible** and **painless**, indicating an elective repair is warranted, not an emergency exploration.

Q: A patient presents with urinary symptoms due to benign prostatic hyperplasia. Which of the following is used to manage the urinary symptoms in the initial stage of this condition?

Tamsulosin. ***Tamsulosin*** - **Alpha-1 adrenergic blocker** that relaxes smooth muscle in the prostate and bladder neck - Provides **rapid symptom relief** within days to weeks for moderate-to-severe LUTS (Lower Urinary Tract Symptoms) - **First-line medical therapy** for symptomatic BPH requiring treatment - Improves urinary flow rate and reduces obstructive symptoms (hesitancy, weak stream, incomplete emptying) *Finasteride* - 5-alpha reductase inhibitor that shrinks prostate size over time - Takes **6+ months** to show clinical benefit, not ideal for initial symptom relief - More appropriate for patients with large prostates (>40g) or as combination therapy *TURP (Transurethral Resection of Prostate)* - **Surgical intervention** reserved for refractory cases, complications, or failure of medical management - Not appropriate as initial management - Indications: recurrent retention, refractory hematuria, bladder stones, renal insufficiency due to BPH *Observation* - Appropriate for **asymptomatic or mildly symptomatic** patients (watchful waiting) - This patient presents with urinary symptoms requiring active management - Not suitable when symptoms are bothersome enough to prompt medical consultation

Q: Which is the least commonly used graft for coronary artery bypass graft (CABG)?

Intercostal artery. ***Intercostal artery***- This artery is **rarely used** in CABG due to its small caliber, difficult harvesting, and high risk of **graft spasm**.- Its use is generally restricted to highly unusual circumstances or when all major **arterial** and **venous conduits** are unavailable. *Long saphenous vein*- The **long saphenous vein (LSV)** is the most common venous graft and is frequently used, particularly for targets other than the LAD.- Though easily accessible and long, LSV grafts have significantly lower long-term patency rates compared to arterial grafts due to susceptibility to **intimal hyperplasia** and atherosclerosis. *Internal mammary artery* - The **Internal Mammary Artery (IMA)** (or Internal Thoracic Artery) is universally considered the **gold standard** graft, particularly for the Left Anterior Descending (LAD) artery.- It offers the highest long-term patency (often >90% at 10 years), making it the most commonly preferred graft, not the least common. *Radial artery*- The **radial artery (RA)** is widely used as a second arterial conduit, offering excellent long-term patency rates superior to vein grafts but slightly less than the IMA.- Preoperative evaluation using the **Allen's test** is necessary to confirm adequate collateral circulation via the ulnar artery before harvesting.

Q: Which of the following is the recommended treatment for the ureteric stone shown in the image?

Ureteroscopy. ***Ureteroscopy*** - This procedure involves passing a small, flexible scope through the urethra and bladder into the ureter to directly visualize and treat the stone. - It is a highly effective and preferred treatment for stones located in the **mid and distal ureter**, allowing for either retrieval with a basket or fragmentation with a laser. *Percutaneous nephrolithotomy* - This is an invasive procedure where an instrument is passed directly into the kidney through a small incision in the back. - It is primarily indicated for the removal of **large renal stones** (typically >2 cm) or staghorn calculi located within the kidney, not for ureteric stones. *ESWL* - Extracorporeal Shock Wave Lithotripsy (ESWL) uses focused **shock waves** from outside the body to break the stone into smaller fragments that can be passed in the urine. - While an option for some ureteric and kidney stones, its success rate is lower for stones in the **lower ureter** and for harder stones, making ureteroscopy often more effective. *Wait and watch* - This approach, often combined with **Medical Expulsive Therapy** (e.g., alpha-blockers), is reserved for small, uncomplicated stones (typically **<5 mm**) that are likely to pass spontaneously. - It is not recommended for larger stones, stones causing significant obstruction or severe symptoms, or those that fail to pass after a trial period.

Question 1

A homosexual man complains of painful defecation and mass protruding from the anal canal. Biopsy reveals squamous cell carcinoma of anus. Correct management for this patient is

Accepted Answer

Combined chemoradiation

Answer

Wide local excision

Answer

Chemotherapy

Answer

Abdominoperineal repair

Question 2

A 25-year-old patient presents to the surgical OPD with a painless left inguinal reducible mass. On examination cough impulse is positive. After further investigations, the patient is diagnosed with an inguinal hernia. What is the surgical management of this patient?

Accepted Answer

b.Hernioplasty

Answer

a.Herniotomy

Answer

c.Wait and watch

Answer

d.Emergency laparotomy

Question 3

A patient presents with urinary symptoms due to benign prostatic hyperplasia. Which of the following is used to manage the urinary symptoms in the initial stage of this condition?

Accepted Answer

Tamsulosin

Answer

Finasteride

Answer

Observation

Answer

TURP-Transurethral resection of prostate

Question 4

Which is the least commonly used graft for coronary artery bypass graft (CABG)?

Accepted Answer

Intercostal artery

Answer

Radial artery

Answer

Long saphenous vein

Answer

Internal mammary artery

Question 5

Which of the following is the recommended treatment for the ureteric stone shown in the image?

Accepted Answer

Ureteroscopy

Answer

Percutaneous nephrolithotomy

Answer

ESWL

Answer

Wait and watch

FMGE 2023 — Surgery